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If n=1 and (m−n) / p=2, then which of the following . . .

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Answer

by EconomistGMATTutor » Sun Oct 29, 2017 9:15 am
Hello M7MBA. Yes, of course. Let's take a look at it.

We have that n=1, so $$\frac{m-n}{p}=2\ <=>\frac{m-1}{2}=2.$$

If we replace m=1 on the equation above we will get $$\frac{1-1}{2}=0\ and\ 0\ne2.$$

That is why m can not be 1.

The correct option is D.

I hope this may help you.

Feel free to ask me if you have any doubt.
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