GMATGuruNY wrote:
Answer choice A does just what we need: The government might continue to pay for past inefficient use of funds. Since historical costing guarantees that the contractors will make a profit, the contractors have no incentive to use government funds efficiently, resulting in a pricing method that enables the contractors to protect their profits but is NOT economically sound.
The correct answer is A.
GMATGuruNY wrote:
In this context, inefficient means wasteful.
The OA implies the following:
If the government has been OVERPAYING for weapons, then allowing contractors to increase prices at the current rate of inflation will cause the government to CONTINUE TO OVERPAY for weapons.
Overpaying for weapons is an inefficient/wasteful use of funds -- strengthening the conclusion that historical costing is NOT an economically sound pricing method.
Hi GMATGuruNY,
Few clarifications required on your explanations above -
1. It appears to me from your above TWO quotes that in first explanation it seems that it's conveyed that
the contractors DON'T use government funds efficiently, WHEREAS in the second explanation it seems that it says that
the government has been using funds inefficiently OR in a wasteful manner by OVERPAYING for weapons -- so I'm getting
LITTLE BIT confused that which one is actually taking place! (Though,I guess, the latter EXPLANATION is more likely to be CONVINCING)
Could you please help me understand where I'm getting this wrong ?
2. (Although it's a WEAKEN type CR) I guess, it's NOT
EXACTLY that TYPICAL WEAKEN question in which
CONCLUSION itself lies in the STIMULUS/ARGUMENT, rather the
CONCLUSION here is in the QUESTION STEM... isn't it BIT weird ?
In GMAT,how often we can see such CR construction
(in which CONCLUSION lies in the QUESTION STEM) ? Any other similar instances of Official Questions ?
3. I think, the main ISSUE here is
adding increment to the previous year's contractual price. Because, if the government has been OVERPAYING for weapons, then MOST LIKELY there is some
FLAW in the FIRST/BASE contractual price after which the HISTORICAL COSTING has made this
FLAW to be continued in the subsequent years, without having a provision to get this
FLAW rectified...and hence HISTORICAL COSTING thus becomes
NOT economically sound. Am I correct ?