BREAKING: Target Test Prep releases Brand New 2026 On Demand GMAT prep course

Redeem

GMATPrep - modifier,IDIOM

This topic has expert replies
Post new topic Locked
Previous Topic Next Topic
Legendary Member
Posts: 768
Joined: Mon Nov 30, 2009 3:46 am
Thanked: 21 times
Followed by:7 members

GMATPrep - modifier,IDIOM

by GMATMadeEasy » Wed Jun 15, 2011 11:38 am
The globalization of financial-services companies has been a boon to money launderers, because of allowing money placed in a bank in a less regulated jurisdiction to be transferred to a branch in a more regulated one.
A. of allowing money placed in a bank in a less regulated jurisdiction to be transferred
B. of allowing the transfer of money placed in a bank in a less regulated jurisdiction
C. it allows that money placed in a bank in a less regulated jurisdiction is transferred
D. it allows the transfer of money having been placed in a bank in a less regulated jurisdiction
E. it allows money placed in a bank in a less regulated jurisdiction to be transferred

OA is E

Question: Why usage of having been is incorrect? well,i have assumed here that this is at least one of the reasons.
Top
Source: — Sentence Correction |
User avatar
Legendary Member
Posts: 1101
Joined: Fri Jan 28, 2011 7:26 am
Thanked: 47 times
Followed by:13 members
GMAT Score:640

by HSPA » Wed Jun 15, 2011 6:03 pm
Here 'money' is the topic not 'transfer of money' as this maintains the parallel and

even i have observed the contionous..B forms.. are almost always the doubted answers.
First take: 640 (50M, 27V) - RC needs 300% improvement
Second take: coming soon..
Regards,
HSPA.
Top
Junior | Next Rank: 30 Posts
Posts: 29
Joined: Tue May 31, 2011 1:44 am
Thanked: 2 times

by gmat062011 » Wed Jun 15, 2011 7:01 pm
OA:E

A and B is wrong
-> 'because of allowing' is wrong construction

C and D --> idiom is 'allows to'

question -> 'is transfered' -> does is it mean past tense ? Sentence is in present perfect 'has been a boon to money launderers'. Please help me to understand.
Top
Master | Next Rank: 500 Posts
Posts: 135
Joined: Tue Oct 13, 2009 10:27 am
Thanked: 3 times

by boazkhan » Wed Jun 15, 2011 9:05 pm
Can someone explain what is wrong with C?

Thanks!
Top
User avatar
Legendary Member
Posts: 516
Joined: Fri Jul 31, 2009 3:22 pm
Thanked: 112 times
Followed by:13 members

by smackmartine » Wed Jun 15, 2011 9:12 pm
boazkhan wrote:Can someone explain what is wrong with C?

Thanks!
"Allows that" is an incorrect idiom.
Top
Master | Next Rank: 500 Posts
Posts: 135
Joined: Tue Oct 13, 2009 10:27 am
Thanked: 3 times

by boazkhan » Wed Jun 15, 2011 9:27 pm
Didn't realize "allows that" was an idiom to begin with.

I am trying to understand the difference between .. is transferred and to be transferred. Any comments?


Thanks!
Top
User avatar
Legendary Member
Posts: 516
Joined: Fri Jul 31, 2009 3:22 pm
Thanked: 112 times
Followed by:13 members

by smackmartine » Wed Jun 15, 2011 10:08 pm
boazkhan wrote:Didn't realize "allows that" was an idiom to begin with.

I am trying to understand the difference between .. is transferred and to be transferred. Any comments?


Thanks!
IMO both "is transferred" and "to be transferred" are correct based on how they are used in the sentence. (These may not be the best examples but both usages are correct.)

eg. My money is transferred to the Bank Of America.

The money to be transferred to your bank of America account, is with Adam.
Top

GMAT/MBA Expert

User avatar
GMAT Instructor
Posts: 3380
Joined: Mon Mar 03, 2008 1:20 am
Thanked: 2256 times
Followed by:1535 members
GMAT Score:800

by lunarpower » Wed Jun 15, 2011 10:41 pm
GMATMadeEasy wrote:Question: Why usage of having been is incorrect? well,i have assumed here that this is at least one of the reasons.
i don't think that is necessarily incorrect, although it's clearly inferior to the version in the correct answer choice (i.e., "money placed in..." is definitely better than "money that has been placed in...")
don't forget that this kind of comparison is a useful tool! you don't have to consider answer choices solely on their own merits if a comparison is available.

the one thing that's definitely incorrect in (a) is "because of VERBing". this construction is not idiomatic; it should be replaced with "because + subj + verb", as is done in the correct version ("because it allows...").
Ron has been teaching various standardized tests for 20 years.

--

Pueden hacerle preguntas a Ron en castellano
Potete chiedere domande a Ron in italiano
On peut poser des questions à Ron en français
Voit esittää kysymyksiä Ron:lle myös suomeksi

--

Quand on se sent bien dans un vêtement, tout peut arriver. Un bon vêtement, c'est un passeport pour le bonheur.

Yves Saint-Laurent

--

Learn more about ron
Top
Legendary Member
Posts: 1404
Joined: Tue May 20, 2008 6:55 pm
Thanked: 18 times
Followed by:2 members

by tanviet » Thu Jun 16, 2011 12:45 am
NOUN HAVING DONE is never correct both in general grammar and in gmat grammar because

NOUN DOING can means

NOUN WHICH WILL DO
NOUN WHICH DID
NOUN WHICH HAD DONE
ANY TENSE....
(according the COMPREHENSIVE GRAMMAR 1700 PAGES )

SO, there is no place for NOUN HAVING DONE to show that it refer to past action.
Top

GMAT/MBA Expert

User avatar
GMAT Instructor
Posts: 3380
Joined: Mon Mar 03, 2008 1:20 am
Thanked: 2256 times
Followed by:1535 members
GMAT Score:800

by lunarpower » Thu Jun 16, 2011 3:09 am
duongthang wrote:NOUN HAVING DONE is never correct both in general grammar and in gmat grammar because

NOUN DOING can means

NOUN WHICH WILL DO
NOUN WHICH DID
NOUN WHICH HAD DONE
ANY TENSE....
(according the COMPREHENSIVE GRAMMAR 1700 PAGES )

SO, there is no place for NOUN HAVING DONE to show that it refer to past action.
this is not really the idea.

the "no comma + verbING" modifier can adopt any tense, but it can't adopt random tenses -- it adopts the tense of the clause to which it is attached. it signifies that the verbING is happening at the same time as the clause to which it is attached.
for instance:
the professor spoke to a group of students studying physics
--> means that the students were studying physics WHEN the professor talked to them. if they had already studied physics in the past, but were no longer studying it, this sentence would be incorrect.

--

the real reason why you won't see "noun + having VERBed" very often is that it is inferior to "noun that/who has verbed", "noun that/who had verbed", etc.
e.g., let's say that the students were no longer studying physics.
then

the professor spoke to a group of students having studied physics
--> not necessarily incorrect, but weird.
the professor spoke to a group of students who had studied physics
--> better.

--

2 other things that need to be addressed here:

1) basically, you're saying, "if we can already express X in one way, then we don't need another way."
this sort of reasoning is not valid -- there are often many different ways to express the same thing, all of which are correct. (this is why not everyone writes in exactly the same way.)
just because one version of something is correct, you can't assume that other versions are incorrect.

2) if you're going to cite a book, please cite the actual title and author of the book. i.e., the citation "COMPREHENSIVE GRAMMAR 1700 PAGES" is not useful in any way, because it's not anything that we can look up or check.
so please either (a) cite the actual title/author of the book, or (b) don't cite at all.

finally, i sincerely hope you don't think that having lots and lots and lots of pages makes something a better reference...
Ron has been teaching various standardized tests for 20 years.

--

Pueden hacerle preguntas a Ron en castellano
Potete chiedere domande a Ron in italiano
On peut poser des questions à Ron en français
Voit esittää kysymyksiä Ron:lle myös suomeksi

--

Quand on se sent bien dans un vêtement, tout peut arriver. Un bon vêtement, c'est un passeport pour le bonheur.

Yves Saint-Laurent

--

Learn more about ron
Top
Senior | Next Rank: 100 Posts
Posts: 38
Joined: Sun Jul 25, 2010 4:02 am

by shweta.kalra » Thu Jun 16, 2011 6:50 am
hi ron sir.
plz explain , why "c" is wrong/
is the idiom problem " allow to be?
thanks
Top
Master | Next Rank: 500 Posts
Posts: 242
Joined: Fri Aug 01, 2008 8:49 am
Location: Delhi
Thanked: 6 times

by ranjeet75 » Thu Jun 16, 2011 7:23 am
"Allow" is a bossy verb which takes only the 'Infinitive' and not the 'Command Subjunctive' hence 'allow that' is incorrect.

and, hence, C is incorrect.
Top
Legendary Member
Posts: 768
Joined: Mon Nov 30, 2009 3:46 am
Thanked: 21 times
Followed by:7 members

by GMATMadeEasy » Thu Jun 16, 2011 10:19 am
ranjeet75 wrote:"Allow" is a bossy verb which takes only the 'Infinitive' and not the 'Command Subjunctive' hence 'allow that' is incorrect.

and, hence, C is incorrect.
wrong:
1. allow is not bossy verb and i don't think it can be. how can you be a boss while alllowing somebody to do something instead of ordering/recommending him to do something.
2. the reason C is wrong is that allow will take an object immediately following it. (in active voice of course)

Beat The GMAT allows anyone to write anything .
Beat The GMAT allows that anyone can write anything .
Top
Master | Next Rank: 500 Posts
Posts: 226
Joined: Thu Nov 25, 2010 12:19 am
Thanked: 3 times
Followed by:2 members

by nafiul9090 » Fri Jun 17, 2011 12:51 am
lunarpower wrote:
GMATMadeEasy wrote:Question: Why usage of having been is incorrect? well,i have assumed here that this is at least one of the reasons.
i don't think that is necessarily incorrect, although it's clearly inferior to the version in the correct answer choice (i.e., "money placed in..." is definitely better than "money that has been placed in...")
don't forget that this kind of comparison is a useful tool! you don't have to consider answer choices solely on their own merits if a comparison is available.

the one thing that's definitely incorrect in (a) is "because of VERBing". this construction is not idiomatic; it should be replaced with "because + subj + verb", as is done in the correct version ("because it allows...").
hello ron

just for clarification, is "because of + verbING" always incorrect......


regards nafi
Top
Master | Next Rank: 500 Posts
Posts: 242
Joined: Fri Aug 01, 2008 8:49 am
Location: Delhi
Thanked: 6 times

by ranjeet75 » Fri Jun 17, 2011 9:40 am
MGMAT says that 'allow' is a bossy verb.

[quote="GMATMadeEasy"][quote="ranjeet75"]"Allow" is a bossy verb which takes only the 'Infinitive' and not the 'Command Subjunctive' hence 'allow that' is incorrect.

and, hence, C is incorrect.[/quote]

wrong:
1. allow is not bossy verb and i don't think it can be. how can you be a boss while alllowing somebody to do something instead of ordering/recommending him to do something.
2. the reason C is wrong is that [i]allow[/i] will take an object immediately following it. (in active voice of course)

Beat The GMAT allows [i]anyone[/i] to write anything .
Beat The GMAT allows that anyone can write anything .[/quote]
Top
Post new topic Locked