Having Modifier

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Having Modifier

by Benni » Sat Nov 03, 2012 7:55 pm
Hi,

I have a question regarding OG 13, OA 70:
The first trenches that were cut into a 500-acre site at Tell Hamoukar, Syria, have yielded strong evidence for centrally administered complex societies in northern regions of the Middle East that were arising simultaneously with but independently of the more celebrated city-states of southern Mesopotamia, in what is now southern Iraq.


A. that were cut into a 500-acre site at Tell Hamoukar, Syria, have yielded strong evidence for centrally administered complex societies in northern regions of the Middle East that were arising simultaneously with but

B. that were cut into a 500-acre site at Tell Hamoukar, Syria, yields strong evidence that centrally administered complex societies in northern regions of the Middle East were arising simultaneously with but also

C. having been cut into a 500-acre site at Tell Hamoukar, Syria, have yielded strong evidence that centrally administered complex societies in northern regions of the Middle East were arising simultaneously but

D. cut into a 500-acre site at Tell Hamoukar, Syria, yields strong evidence of centrally administered complex societies in northern regions of the Middle East arising simultaneously but also

E. cut into a 500-acre site at Tell Hamoukar, Syria, have yielded strong evidence that centrally administered complex societies in northern regions of the Middle East arose simultaneously with but

OA E

I see that C is wrong, as "arising simultaneously" needs preposition with. But what I do not understand is the "having been cut" part. The OG explaination is, that "having been cut" is too wordy. Firstly, this is a participle, isn't it? Secondly, The past participle modifier tells us, that it stands for a tense, prior to the tense it modifies. Hence, having been cut (...), have yielded stands for "The first trences had been cut into a (...), have yielded...". How could it been "too wordy". The GMAT explaination conveys, that "having been cut" and "cut" could be used interchangable.


Please please help me. I can' t explain my problem better. :( :(
Source: — Sentence Correction |

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by Kasia@EconomistGMAT » Wed Nov 07, 2012 5:52 am
Firstly, you need to realize that "cut" is a participle too and not a conjugated verb. The verb "cut" ca be tricky because in most sentences it looks the same regardless of the tense (unconjugated form - "cut", the Past Simple form - "cut" and the Past Participle also - "cut"). So the interpretation what form it is in depends solely on the context.
In this particular question, the word "cut" is a past participle and its meaning is very similar to the one of "having been cut." It conveys a very similar idea about the trenches - that they WERE CUT into a 500-acre site some time ago. The participle "having been cut" highlights the fact that the action happened in the past.

Compare the following sentences:
Having been cut into pieces, the documents could not be used as evidence.
Cut into pieces, the documents could not be used as evidence.
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