I don't think this question is very GMAT friendly.
It requires you to know that "import diversion" means that the imports from Workland would simply replace those from other countries, resulting in the trade balance remaining unchanged, and thus weakening the letter writer's argument that it would change.
To be perfectly honest, I would stay well away from the Barron's series - waste of time!
commercial editor of the newspaper
This topic has expert replies
Source: Beat The GMAT — Critical Reasoning |
-
albatross86
- Master | Next Rank: 500 Posts
- Posts: 392
- Joined: Sun May 16, 2010 2:42 am
- Location: Bangalore, India
- Thanked: 116 times
- Followed by:10 members
- GMAT Score:770
