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since the 1920s or since 1920

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since the 1920s or since 1920

by mundasingh123 » Wed Aug 24, 2011 2:06 pm
Since the 1920s, a family of artists have made their home at Shearwater, a complex overlooking Mississippi's Biloxi Bay.

(1)


Since the 1920s, a family of artists have made

(2)


Since 1920, a family of artists has made

(3)


Since the 1920s, a family of artists has made


(4)

In the 1920s, a family of artists has made

(5)

In the 1920s, a family of artists have made
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by Frankenstein » Wed Aug 24, 2011 8:11 pm
Hi,
since the 1920s and since 1920 are both valid. I have seen similar usage in a GMAT Prep SC question. So, that is enough to say it is accepted by GMAC. However, I have other doubts in this question. Is this from an authentic source or pasted from an article? I have googled this and found the following:
https://www.npr.org/templates/story/stor ... Id=4853507

I am confused about the usage because plural verb 'have' in this source. It doesn't agree with the subject family, which I believe is singular as it is a collective noun.
Last edited by Frankenstein on Thu Aug 25, 2011 6:32 am, edited 1 time in total.
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by mundasingh123 » Wed Aug 24, 2011 10:04 pm
Source : masterGmat Free Sim Test
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by Frankenstein » Wed Aug 24, 2011 10:32 pm
mundasingh123 wrote:Source : masterGmat Free Sim Test
Okay...Any idea what the OA is? I am sending PM to Master GMAT expert anyway.
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by mundasingh123 » Wed Aug 24, 2011 10:39 pm
Frankenstein wrote:
mundasingh123 wrote:Source : masterGmat Free Sim Test
Okay...Any idea what the OA is? I am sending PM to Master GMAT expert anyway.
No need . The OA is C . The Explanation is that B changes the original meaning
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by Frankenstein » Wed Aug 24, 2011 10:57 pm
mundasingh123 wrote:
Frankenstein wrote:
mundasingh123 wrote:Source : masterGmat Free Sim Test
Okay...Any idea what the OA is? I am sending PM to Master GMAT expert anyway.
No need . The OA is C . The Explanation is that B changes the original meaning
I am not worried about the underlined part. Of course, B changes the meaning. I have posted him regarding the usage of 'their'. I am not too sure about it.

Edit: I am clear about the usage of 'their'. So, requested him not to respond.
Last edited by Frankenstein on Thu Aug 25, 2011 6:46 am, edited 2 times in total.
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by patanjali.purpose » Wed Aug 24, 2011 11:31 pm
Frankenstein wrote:Hi,
since the 1920s and since 1920 are both valid. I have seen similar usage in a GMAT Prep SC question. So, that is enough to say it is accepted by GMAC. However, I have other doubts in this question. Is this from an authentic source or pasted from an article? So, I have googled this and found the following:
https://www.npr.org/templates/story/stor ... Id=4853507

I am confused about the usage because plural verb 'have'. It doesn't agree with the subject family, which I believe is singular as it is a collective noun. Can 'family' be plural as well? Similarly, the non-underlined portion has their. I don't think it can refer to artists. I guess it can only refer to family, which is again singular.

Expert opinions are appreciated!
Hi,

I thought 1920 better than 1920s, however, since you mentioned that you have seen similar usage in GMATPrep - could you pls share some more insight into such usage. How 1920 and 1920s are different/same and how B and C changes the meaning.

regarding 'their' - IMO their, a pronoun, can refer to a noun inside a prepositional phrase ie artists here
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by Frankenstein » Wed Aug 24, 2011 11:38 pm
patanjali.purpose wrote: Hi,

I thought 1920 better than 1920s, however, since you mentioned that you have seen similar usage in GMATPrep - could you pls share some more insight into such usage. How 1920 and 1920s are different/same and how B and C changes the meaning.
Hi,
Original sentence says since the 1920s, which is a valid usage. So, we should preserve the meaning of it. 1920s means some unclear time between 1920-1930(more or less encapsulating the decade. it could be 1921,1922...so on). In B, usage of 1920 means you are making it strictly year of 1920(specific). That is what I mean by change in meaning. C doesn't change meaning. It corrects the verb have to has(singular).
regarding 'their' - IMO their, a pronoun, can refer to a noun inside a prepositional phrase ie artists here
Yup, even I feel the same. But, I was not 100% sure so just wanted someone to confirm this because I regularly see constructions such as 'a group of players showing their skills'. I just wanted a confirmation of this. Now that I feel it is valid, I will edit that part so that others don't get confused.
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