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Good DS question - Cogeo II

Expert replies

by Ian Stewart » Tue Apr 21, 2009 4:24 am
austin wrote:When we say intercept of 3, it means distance is 3...
Intercepts are *not* distances, they are coordinates. They can be negative, and they can be positive. If the y-intercept of a line is b, then the distance from the y-intercept to the origin will always be equal to |b|, and not necessarily to b (b can be negative). If a line has a y-intercept of 3, that guarantees that the point (0,3) is on the line, and unless the line is vertical, that also guarantees that the point (0, -3) is *not* on the line.
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by sanju09 » Tue Apr 21, 2009 5:39 am
For statement (1) in particular:

In order to include the possibility that both the intercepts could be equal to 0; the phrase "x-intercept is twice the y intercept" would have been written as "x-intercept is (some) k times the y intercept, where k is not 0", instead of fixing a value for k, so I still believe that if the two statements were not contradicting here, this could have been a possible GMAT question with A as the answer.

The sign matters when defining the intercepts; why not so?
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by austin » Tue Apr 21, 2009 7:22 am
I meant distance along the axes

I am quoting nervesofsteel's post here:

A)insufficient as if line passes through (0,1) and ( -2,0) slope is 1/2
if it passes through (0,1) and (2,0) the slope becomes -1/2.. so insufficient..

B) Line passing through quads cannot give an idea about slope...

if line passes through I and III quad.. and intercept on X axis is double the intercept on Y axis..then slope must be 1/2...

I too had the same explanation in mind. Both intercepts being zero makes it more complicated now!!!

found this question on some yahoo groups
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by Ian Stewart » Tue Apr 21, 2009 7:32 am
sanju09 wrote:For statement (1) in particular:

In order to include the possibility that both the intercepts could be equal to 0; the phrase "x-intercept is twice the y intercept" would have been written as "x-intercept is (some) k times the y intercept, where k is not 0", instead of fixing a value for k, so I still believe that if the two statements were not contradicting here, this could have been a possible GMAT question with A as the answer.
I don't think you'll see a phrase like the one in the question on a real GMAT anyway (I don't think I've ever seen a question that uses 'twice' to mean 'two times'). That said, you can certainly see an equation like:

x = 2y

and you can't dismiss the possibility that x = y = 0, of course. Taking the statement literally, the intercepts could certainly both be zero; that's an entirely logical conclusion from the statement, as it is worded. If the GMAT wants to exclude that possibility, this will be made perfectly clear in the wording of the question; otherwise the question would not be fair.

I agree that it is a more interesting question, and a more GMAT-like question, if somehow the question conveys that the x- and y-intercepts are not at the origin. Then, of course, one of the statements needs to be changed so that they are not contradictory.
For online GMAT math tutoring, or to buy my higher-level Quant books and problem sets, contact me at ianstewartgmat at gmail.com

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