Another way to look at stm II
b^2 = c^2
b^2-c^2 = 0
(b+c) (b-c) = 0
since b>0 and c>0 b+c cannot be 0 so b-c=0
SUFF
or
In general b^2=c^2 could mean b = - c or b = c but since its given b>0 and c>0 b=c i.e. b-c=0
SUFF
GMATPREP is a(b-c)=0?
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Source: Beat The GMAT — Data Sufficiency |
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pbanavara
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Totally - It's very easy to get stuck into the thought that b2=c2 => +/-b=+/-c - One glance at the question stem will reveal that all are positive so b=c.cramya wrote:Another way to look at stm II
b^2 = c^2
b^2-c^2 = 0
(b+c) (b-c) = 0
since b>0 and c>0 b+c cannot be 0 so b-c=0
SUFF
or
In general b^2=c^2 could mean b = - c or b = c but since its given b>0 and c>0 b=c i.e. b-c=0
SUFF
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vittalgmat
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so is the OA D ??
I did the following for stmt 1:
b -c = c -b
=> 2(b-c) = 0
=> (b-c) = 0
multiplying by a both sides
a(b-c) = 0
Sufficient.
Is this correct? esp the * by a
thanks
I did the following for stmt 1:
b -c = c -b
=> 2(b-c) = 0
=> (b-c) = 0
multiplying by a both sides
a(b-c) = 0
Sufficient.
Is this correct? esp the * by a
thanks
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cramya
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OA should be D) imo=> (b-c) = 0
multiplying by a both sides
a(b-c) = 0
Vittal,
I would say yes! Once u proved b-c = 0 u can skip the multiplying by a part since a(b-c) will always be 0 if either a or b-c is 0

















