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by [email protected] » Sun Sep 16, 2007 10:19 am
Since 1945 there have been numerous international confrontations as tense as those that precipitated the Second World War£¬ and yet no large-scale conflict has resulted. To explain this, some argue that fear of enomous destruction such as the Second World War produced has had a dramatic deterrent effect.

¡¡¡¡Which of the following .if true£¬ most seriously weakens the deterrent theory mentioned above?

¡¡¡¡A. After the First World War£¬ the fear of great future destruction was as intense as it was after the Second World War.

¡¡¡¡B. Psychologists have detemined that fear of retaliation tends to temper aggressiveness among human beings.

¡¡¡¡C. The Second World War was far less destractive than most people gen- erally believe.

¡¡¡¡D. Fear of repeating the levels of destructions that the Second World War produced is as pervasive today as it was forty years age.

¡¡¡¡E. Many of the international confrontations that have occurred since 1945 have involved countries that participated in the Second World War.
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Source: — Critical Reasoning |

by kajcha » Sun Sep 16, 2007 2:03 pm
I will go with A

A - says that the fear of destruction was present after world war 1. Still, second world war happanned. So this weakes the argument the "fear...." is the reason of NO LARGE CONFLICTS.
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by [email protected] » Sun Sep 16, 2007 2:07 pm
You are correct.
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by micheal_kr » Tue May 03, 2016 4:33 am
I also will go with A.
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