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138 v2 Does this have finite decimal?

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Source: — Data Sufficiency |
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by DREAM GMAT » Sat Oct 10, 2009 2:00 am
IMO its A
MANDEEP
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by NikolayZ » Sat Oct 10, 2009 9:14 am
C maybe ?

(1) the decimal will be in the form ( 1/(5^n)*q) - thus, the denominator is a multiple of five. But we don't know anything about q. Insufficient.

(2) The denominator is a multiple of 3. But we don't have anything about p. BUT:

Read in MGMAT FDPs that "when you express terminating decimals as fractions in lowest levels. they only have 2's and/or 5's as a prime factors in their denominators.

So the denominator cannot be expressed as only 2's and 5's.
Thus, 2 must be sufficient. B. ??
What is the OA.

P.s. i edited my post, the first one was definitely wrong as i chose A.
Last edited by NikolayZ on Sat Oct 10, 2009 10:51 am, edited 1 time in total.
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by xcusemeplz2009 » Sat Oct 10, 2009 9:22 am
IMO E

OA pls
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by mehravikas » Sat Oct 10, 2009 4:15 pm
IMO - C

Assuming n = 0, the value of the expression is 1 i.e. there is no finite decimal sequence

Assuming n > 0, the value of the expression will again not have any finite decimal sequence

Assuming n < 0, the value of the expression will not have any decimal sequence
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by ern5231 » Sun Oct 11, 2009 12:50 am
C it is
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by crackgmat007 » Sun Oct 11, 2009 12:55 pm
mehravikas wrote:IMO - C

Assuming n = 0, the value of the expression is 1 i.e. there is no finite decimal sequence
Did you mean no decimals at all? as in 1.0
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by mehravikas » Mon Oct 12, 2009 12:24 am
Yes I meant no zero's at all, anything to the power of zero would yield a value of 1 and 1/1 will give an integer value.
crackgmat007 wrote:
mehravikas wrote:IMO - C

Assuming n = 0, the value of the expression is 1 i.e. there is no finite decimal sequence
Did you mean no decimals at all? as in 1.0
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by crackgmat007 » Mon Oct 12, 2009 4:50 pm
mehravikas wrote:Yes I meant no zero's at all, anything to the power of zero would yield a value of 1 and 1/1 will give an integer value.
crackgmat007 wrote:
mehravikas wrote:IMO - C

Assuming n = 0, the value of the expression is 1 i.e. there is no finite decimal sequence
Did you mean no decimals at all? as in 1.0
Isnt 1.0000 not the same as 1?
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by mehravikas » Mon Oct 12, 2009 4:54 pm
In theory it should be, unless there is a GMAT reason for it not to be the same :-)

Also, question for you: why would you get 1.000 when you divide 1 / 1?
crackgmat007 wrote:
mehravikas wrote:Yes I meant no zero's at all, anything to the power of zero would yield a value of 1 and 1/1 will give an integer value.
crackgmat007 wrote:
mehravikas wrote:IMO - C

Assuming n = 0, the value of the expression is 1 i.e. there is no finite decimal sequence
Did you mean no decimals at all? as in 1.0
Isnt 1.0000 not the same as 1?
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