Is 1/(a-b)<(b-a)?
1. a<b
2. 1<|a-b|
OA is A
What is wrong with rephrasing the question to (b-a)^2 > 1
1. a<b
2. 1<|a-b|
OA is A
What is wrong with rephrasing the question to (b-a)^2 > 1
Statement 1: As a < b, (a - b) < 0hey_thr67 wrote:Is 1/(a-b)<(b-a)?
1. a < b
2. 1 < |a-b|
Hence, 1/(a - b) is negative but (b - a) is positive.
Hence, 1/(a - b) is always less than (b - a)
Sufficient
Statement 2: Consider the following two examples,
a = 3, b = 1 --> |a - b| > 1 ---> 1/(a - b) > (b - a) --> NO
a = 1, b = 3 --> |a - b| > 1 ---> 1/(a - b) < (b - a) --> YES
Not sufficient
The correct answer is A.
