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jaroth04
- Junior | Next Rank: 30 Posts
- Posts: 12
- Joined: Wed Nov 11, 2009 7:08 pm
- Location: Pittsburgh, PA
- GMAT Score:740
Just finished a Kaplan prep test, that contained the following question:
Are p, q, and r all even integers?
(1) p + 2 = q = r - 2
(2) pqr = 0
See spoiler text for OA, as well as my question.
[spoiler]
OA is C (BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement ALONE is sufficient). I chose B (Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not sufficient).
What I inferred (correctly from the official explanation, I believe) is that (2) implies that either p, q or r must be 0. 0 is not, to my understanding, an even integer. Can someone refute that? Is 0 considered to be an even integer on the GMAT? Or am I misreading or misinterpreting the statement? If one of them is 0, then they must not *all* be even integers, which would mean that the answer should be B?
[/spoiler]
Thanks in advance for your input.
-Joe
Are p, q, and r all even integers?
(1) p + 2 = q = r - 2
(2) pqr = 0
See spoiler text for OA, as well as my question.
[spoiler]
OA is C (BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement ALONE is sufficient). I chose B (Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not sufficient).
What I inferred (correctly from the official explanation, I believe) is that (2) implies that either p, q or r must be 0. 0 is not, to my understanding, an even integer. Can someone refute that? Is 0 considered to be an even integer on the GMAT? Or am I misreading or misinterpreting the statement? If one of them is 0, then they must not *all* be even integers, which would mean that the answer should be B?
[/spoiler]
Thanks in advance for your input.
-Joe
















