BREAKING: Target Test Prep releases Brand New 2026 On Demand GMAT prep course

Redeem

SC - 1000 - #849

Expert replies
by f2001290 » Wed May 23, 2007 9:11 am
The Western world’s love affair with chocolate is well-documented: few people have been known to have tasted it for the first time without requesting more.
(A) few people have been known to have tasted it
(B) few having been known to taste it
(C) it has been tasted by few people
(D) few people have been known to taste it
(E) few people having tasted it
Join the discussion
Source: — Sentence Correction |

by Cybermusings » Wed May 23, 2007 9:43 am
The Western world’s love affair with chocolate is well-documented: few people have been known to have tasted it for the first time without requesting more.
(A) few people have been known to have tasted it
(B) few having been known to taste it
(C) it has been tasted by few people
(D) few people have been known to taste it
(E) few people having tasted it

B,C and E are all out....I am torn between A and D....between the two I will settle for D....OA please?
Join the discussion

by Cybermusings » Wed May 23, 2007 9:43 am
still not sure though!
Join the discussion

by f2001290 » Wed May 23, 2007 9:44 am
Bang on -- OA is D

I was caught between A and D
Join the discussion

Re: SC - 1000 - #849

by jayhawk2001 » Wed May 23, 2007 8:15 pm
f2001290 wrote:The Western world’s love affair with chocolate is well-documented: few people have been known to have tasted it for the first time without requesting more.
(A) few people have been known to have tasted it
(B) few having been known to taste it
(C) it has been tasted by few people
(D) few people have been known to taste it
(E) few people having tasted it
Gosh, tricky one between A and D.

Anyone know why D is preferred over A? I do understand why we
need present perfect "have been known" but don't really understand why
"to taste it" is preferred over "to have tasted it".

Any English rule that we can imbibe in our heads ?
Join the discussion

by gmat740 » Sun Jun 21, 2009 10:33 pm
Anyone know why D is preferred over A? I do understand why we
need present perfect "have been known" but don't really understand why
"to taste it" is preferred over "to have tasted it".

Any English rule that we can imbibe in our heads
i ALSO have this confusion.
experts pleas help!
Join the discussion

by vinodsundaram » Tue Jul 17, 2012 8:12 am
Between A & D
A repeats the present perfect form instead of using the infinitive.

I like to have eat ice creams
I like to eat ice creams.

after "have been known" it shud be followed by infinitive. to taste
Hence D
Join the discussion

• Page 1 of 1