I thought that "Past Perfect" tense should only be used if sequence of verb is not clear but attached Kaplan question th"rew me off.
I understand the obvious mistake in this question is the use of "known as" but I didn't get why the use of "had" required when "Before" is already specified.
I understand the obvious mistake in this question is the use of "known as" but I didn't get why the use of "had" required when "Before" is already specified.
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