PS - confused about factorials and factors

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by cramya » Sat Nov 01, 2008 1:31 pm
The question is incorrect . It shoudl read 2^k


There is kind of a shortcut to finding this.

Divide 20 by increasing powers of 2 till u get 0 as the integer quotient and add all the integer quotients in the process

i.e

20/2 + 20/2 ^ 2 + 20 / 2 ^3 + 20/2 ^4 + 20 / 2^5

=20/2+20/4+20/8+20/16+20/32
= 10+5+2+1+0 (we stop here)

= 18

D)

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by cramya » Sat Nov 01, 2008 1:32 pm
The highest power of 2 that divides product of 1 to 20 inclusive which is nothing but 20! (20 factorial) is 2 ^ 18

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by cramya » Sat Nov 01, 2008 1:33 pm
The highest power of 2 that divides product of 1 to 20 inclusive which is nothing but 20! (20 factorial) with a remainder of 0 is 2 ^ 18

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by ohwell » Sat Nov 01, 2008 1:46 pm
Thanks again cramya.

Yes, you are absolutely right, it should have been 2^k. Apparantly the copy and paste did not work well. Thanks for the warning. I will from now on check this.

I continuously have trouble with these. How come you can use this shortcut? I don't see this as a starting point.

There is at least one similar question I found that I had trouble with for similar reasons. It is actually resolved in a previous posting:

https://www.beatthegmat.com/number-property-t16641.html

I bet I am just missing something very fundamental and that causes me not to know how to approach this. If you have any insights you can spare, it would be really grateful.

Thanks

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by cramya » Sat Nov 01, 2008 1:57 pm
Believe it or not I stumbled upon this shorcut recently while working on a similar problem.

Take this as one more in your armory to attacke the GMAT. Its a learning process; no doubt.

What specifically did u have a question on? Let me know and I will see if I can help any

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by cramya » Sat Nov 01, 2008 2:06 pm
The other problems u were referrin to: 990 multiple question

This would be my approoach
990 is a mutlpile of 1*2*...n means

990 * k (some arbitrary integer) =1*2*3*... *n
We arte asked ot find the least value of n

Eg: 4 is a mutiple of 2 means 2*2 (k=2 here) = 4

Break 990 in to factors

990 = 5*3*3*2*11

can n=10 be the answer ; no since we need a 11 since 990 has 11 as one one of its factors

Consider n=11 This works since in the product of 1 to 11 we will have
990 = 5*3*3*2*11 (since it contains integers 2,3,5,9,11 which make up 990) and some integer(1*4*5*6*7*8*10) which when multiplied gives 1*2....*11 (990*k = 1*2*3....*11)

Hope this helps!

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by cramya » Sat Nov 01, 2008 2:07 pm
Correction in bold:




The other problems u were referrin to: 990 multiple question

This would be my approoach
990 is a mutlpile of 1*2*...n means

990 * k (some arbitrary integer) =1*2*3*... *n
We arte asked ot find the least value of n

Eg: 4 is a mutiple of 2 means 2*2 (k=2 here) = 4

Break 990 in to factors

990 = 5*3*3*2*11

can n=10 be the answer ; no since we need a 11 since 990 has 11 as one one of its factors

Consider n=11 This works since in the product of 1 to 11 we will have
990 = 5*3*3*2*11 (since it contains integers 2,5,9,11 which make up 990) and some integer(1*3*4*5*6*7*8*10) which when multiplied gives 1*2....*11 (990*k = 1*2*3....*11)

Hope this helps!

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by ohwell » Sun Nov 02, 2008 9:10 pm
Sorry for the late response. It is weekend after all...

Thanks for explaining the other problem in so much detail. I do understand that now. Much appreciated, really !

But going back to the original question....I am still not getting this one yet.

I would have interpreted it as 20!/2^k, so, I would think I need to know what 20! is. Then I would have tried different values for k that would hopefully be close to whatever the value of 20! is. I realize this is nuts. I don't want to calculate 20! and I bet no one wants to.

So, how come I can just use 20 instead of 20! ?

I don't understand I can do what you suggest:

"Divide 20 by increasing powers of 2 till u get 0 as the integer quotient and add all the integer quotients in the process"

Thanks

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by cramya » Sun Nov 02, 2008 9:52 pm
I understand about the weekend part :-)

I need to check on that also. I am sure there is a reason for that.

For eg: if its 30! u would do 30/ . If I find it I will keep u posted.

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by Ian Stewart » Thu Nov 06, 2008 5:05 am
ohwell wrote:
I would have interpreted it as 20!/2^k, so, I would think I need to know what 20! is. Then I would have tried different values for k that would hopefully be close to whatever the value of 20! is. I realize this is nuts. I don't want to calculate 20! and I bet no one wants to.

So, how come I can just use 20 instead of 20! ?

I don't understand I can do what you suggest:

"Divide 20 by increasing powers of 2 till u get 0 as the integer quotient and add all the integer quotients in the process"
If prime factorizations are relatively new to you, the question in the post above is not a good place to start - better to start with something easier. In questions about divisibility, you almost always want to get a prime factorization. That is, we certainly do not want to work out what 20! is equal to by multiplying it out for this question - instead we want to break it down into its prime divisors. If we have a prime factorization of 20!, we'll be able to answer the question; to illustrate, suppose instead you had the following (easier) question:

What is the greatest integer k for which 2^k is a factor of 2^18 * 3^7 * 5^4 ?

The answer would then be k = 18, since 2^18 * 3^7 * 5^4 is divisible by 2^18 but is not divisible by 2^19.

Thus, getting back to the original question, when they ask:

What is the greatest integer k for which 2^k is a factor of 20! ?

we can rephrase the question as:

What is the exponent on the 2 in the prime factorization of 20! ?

cramya offers a shortcut for answering this, but let's first do this the long way. 20! = 20*19*18*17*.... When we break these down into primes, we'll only get 2's from the even numbers, so if we prime factorize:

20*18*16*14*12*10*8*6*4*2

we'll get the answer. We only care about the prime factor 2; looking at the above, and working out how many 2's each of the numbers gives us we have:

(2^2)*(2^1)*(2^4)*(2^1)*(2^2)*(2^1)*(2^3)*(2^1)*(2^2)*(2^1) = 2^18

where the first 2^2 comes from 20, then 2^1 comes from 18, then 2^4 comes from 16, etc.

cramya's shortcut works for the following reason:

-we are multiplying all the positive even integers up to 20;
-each even integer will contribute at least one to the power of 2 in the prime factorization of 20!. We have 20/2^1 = 10 even integers up to 20;
-each multiple of 2^2 will contribute one additional 2 that we haven't yet counted; there will be 20/2^2 = 5 multiples of four up to 20;
-each multiple of 2^3 will contribute yet another 2 that we haven't yet counted; there will be 20/2^3 (ignore the remainder) = 2 multiples of eight up to 20;
-finally, each multiple of 2^4 will contribute another 2 we haven't counted, and there will be 20/2^4 (ignore the remainder) = 1 multiple of sixteen up to 20.

Adding, we get 10 + 5 + 2 + 1 = 18.
For online GMAT math tutoring, or to buy my higher-level Quant books and problem sets, contact me at ianstewartgmat at gmail.com

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by ohwell » Thu Nov 06, 2008 7:29 pm
Thanks so much Ian !

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by willbeatthegmat » Fri Nov 07, 2008 1:54 am
To Cramya & Ian- can u explain d shortcut approach of dis question wid any other example wher we can use it..

Thanks