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beat_gmat_09
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This if from OG
If x,y, and z are positive numbers, is x > y > z ?
1) xz > yz
2) yx > yz
x,y and z are positive integers(numbers) and we have to determine if x > y and y > z
From 1) : as z is positive the inequality can be divided by z on both sides, thus x > y
Not sufficient.
From 2) : again as y is positive x > z
Not sufficient.
1&2 both :
one way to combine - x > y and x > z, we are still not able to find whether y > z. Not sufficient. OA for this is E and OE is similar to above.
My doubt is regarding statements 1&2 combined.
I think we can also divide the inequalities here.
So (1)/(2) = xz/yx > yz/yz => z / y > 1 => as z and y are integers z > y
This is sufficient to determine that x,z > y, at least we know z > y and y is not > z thus it is sufficient to answer the question.
Combining inequalities is even done in OG explanation. Is the division method wrong to follow?
Please share your thoughts.
Thanks.
If x,y, and z are positive numbers, is x > y > z ?
1) xz > yz
2) yx > yz
x,y and z are positive integers(numbers) and we have to determine if x > y and y > z
From 1) : as z is positive the inequality can be divided by z on both sides, thus x > y
Not sufficient.
From 2) : again as y is positive x > z
Not sufficient.
1&2 both :
one way to combine - x > y and x > z, we are still not able to find whether y > z. Not sufficient. OA for this is E and OE is similar to above.
My doubt is regarding statements 1&2 combined.
I think we can also divide the inequalities here.
So (1)/(2) = xz/yx > yz/yz => z / y > 1 => as z and y are integers z > y
This is sufficient to determine that x,z > y, at least we know z > y and y is not > z thus it is sufficient to answer the question.
Combining inequalities is even done in OG explanation. Is the division method wrong to follow?
Please share your thoughts.
Thanks.
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