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Cybermusings
- Legendary Member
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Hmm, not sure how (1) is sufficient. (1) just tells us that a@a = 1/2
and b@b = 1/2. How can we infer anything about a@b or b@a.
2 is sufficient. We are given
a@b = ab / (a^2 + b^2) = 1 / (a/b + b/a).
So, if we sub a with b, it still remains the same.
My vote for B, even though Kaplan (?) says D
