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Doubt about the Q985/1000Sc

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by hardik.jadeja » Mon May 24, 2010 7:48 pm
I search for this question and I found couple of threads where this problem has already been discussed. As per one of the threads, the source is Kaplan 800.
https://www.beatthegmat.com/doubt-about- ... t1018.html
https://www.beatthegmat.com/visited-the- ... 57626.html

There is a typo in option B here. Actually option B is

(B) see layers of sediment in the gaping canyon, whose different colors mark

If option B is using 'see' instead of 'seen', then most certainly it is wrong.
option C, D and E are ruled out because of incorrect usages as mentioned above.

That leaves us with option A.
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by abedinbhuiyan » Sat Aug 14, 2010 9:12 am
thanks mR. Expert.
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by abedinbhuiyan » Sat Aug 14, 2010 9:12 am
thanks mR. Expert.
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by GMATMadeEasy » Sat Aug 14, 2010 12:15 pm
In A and D option there is another differene made :

in A it says : with different colors that mark

in D it says : with different colors marking

Both are correct ? Any preferred option for this particular structure ?
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by nipunkathuria » Mon Aug 16, 2010 10:59 pm
Stuart Kovinsky wrote:(A) is definitely better than (d).

Both (a) and (d) are gramatically correct.

When faced with 2 gramatically correct choices, we turn to #2 on our list of SC criteria: Meaning.

The correct answer to a SC correction will NOT change the meaning of the original sentence, unless the original was nonsensical.

(D) does exactly what we're not supposed to do - "have been able to see" does not mean the same thing as "have seen". Therefore, we should eliminate (d).

Remember, our criteria for a correct answer in SC, in order of priority, are:

(1) gramatically correct;

(2) keeps the meaning of original sentence; and

(3) stylistically superior.


Hi..i m not able to get the difference in the meaning as pointed out by you.
"have been able to see" and "have seen" give the same sense to me..
can u plz elaborate
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by kvcpk » Tue Aug 17, 2010 12:03 am
nipunkathuria wrote: Hi..i m not able to get the difference in the meaning as pointed out by you.
"have been able to see" and "have seen" give the same sense to me..
can u plz elaborate
Let me see if I can help you, before Stuart reaches this post.

Consider the 2 sentences:

1) They have seen XYZ
2) They have been able to see XYZ

in 1), there is stress on "seeing".
In 2) "Ability" to see is stressed.

Hence it changes the intended meaning slightly.

Hope this helps!!
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