As quoted from the Manhattan SC book,
Any of the SANAM Pronouns ( Some, Any, None, All and Many ) can be either singular or plural depending upon the context of the sentence, or more specifically based on the 'of' construction.
Example:
None of my friends have been able to solve.. (a)
None of my friends has been able to solve.. (b)
So based on above hypothesis, we can conclude that (a) is correct because 'friends' is plural.
However, Kaplan contradicts this straight -considering 'None' to be universally singular.
Can someone please help me understand the contradiction?
Any of the SANAM Pronouns ( Some, Any, None, All and Many ) can be either singular or plural depending upon the context of the sentence, or more specifically based on the 'of' construction.
Example:
None of my friends have been able to solve.. (a)
None of my friends has been able to solve.. (b)
So based on above hypothesis, we can conclude that (a) is correct because 'friends' is plural.
However, Kaplan contradicts this straight -considering 'None' to be universally singular.
Can someone please help me understand the contradiction?
Abhay












