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Expert replies

by goelmohit2002 » Mon Aug 31, 2009 4:19 am
lunarpower wrote:
tom4lax wrote:So just as a follow-up here, the reason answer B is incorrect is because of the usage of "conservatively"?
nope. "conservatively" is fine. that's an adverb, and it's being used as an adverb. no problem there at all.

in choice (c), "conservative" is used as an adverb, as it should be. again, all is well.

--

the real problem with choice (b) is the lack of parallelism. you have "they have been", but there's no form of TO BE to which it can be parallel. (contrast this with choice (c), in which there is such a form of "to be" that anchors the parallelism.)

the gmat would not eliminate something like (b) solely on the basis of "ambiguous pronoun".
there are plenty of official problems in which a certain degree of pronoun ambiguity is tolerated (see, for instance, #19 in the OG verbal supplement), so pronoun ambiguity problems should be strictly a last resort (i.e., if all other elimination methods fail).
Thanks Ron.

Can you please look into the similar "have" issue at the following post....

https://www.beatthegmat.com/widespread-b ... 40458.html

Why D is correct over C....

Actually I checked your post at Manhattan form too...but note that there is typo in option c in that post.....so reason for kicking out C was not clear from Manhattan post.
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