Hello everyone,
I have a problem understanding grammatical parallelism in the idiom NOT x BUT y. I understand that X and Y must be parallel both grammatically and semantically. I don't quite understand one particular grammatical aspect of parallelism of this idiom.
Here's an example:
(1) Headache is not caused by reading or listening, but is by sitting. (here x,y, and z are some nouns).
(2) Headache is caused not by reading or listening, but by sitting.
(1) is incorrect because of 'is' after 'but'.
(2) is correct
IMO, in the first sentence we have a correct parallelism:
NOT verb by noun or noun, BUT verb by noun
The left and the right parts are parallel in that they both have similar grammatical elements.
Could you please explain why 'caused by' cannot be made parallel to 'is by'?
Thanks a lot.
I have a problem understanding grammatical parallelism in the idiom NOT x BUT y. I understand that X and Y must be parallel both grammatically and semantically. I don't quite understand one particular grammatical aspect of parallelism of this idiom.
Here's an example:
(1) Headache is not caused by reading or listening, but is by sitting. (here x,y, and z are some nouns).
(2) Headache is caused not by reading or listening, but by sitting.
(1) is incorrect because of 'is' after 'but'.
(2) is correct
IMO, in the first sentence we have a correct parallelism:
NOT verb by noun or noun, BUT verb by noun
The left and the right parts are parallel in that they both have similar grammatical elements.
Could you please explain why 'caused by' cannot be made parallel to 'is by'?
Thanks a lot.












