GMAT Set 1 Q32

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Abhijit K: Master | Next Rank: 500 Posts; Posts: 110; Joined: Mon Feb 09, 2015 1:52 amFollowed by: 4 members

by Abhijit K » Mon Mar 02, 2015 10:09 pm

To develop more accurate population forecasts, demographers have to know a great deal more than now about the social and economic determinants of fertility.

A. have to know a great deal more than now about the social and economic
B. have to know a great deal more than they do now about the social and economical
C. would have to know a great deal more than they do now about the social and economical
D. would have to know a great deal more than they do now about the social and economic
E. would have to know a great deal more than now about the social and economical

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Source: Beat The GMAT — Sentence Correction | Mon Mar 02, 2015 10:09 pm

joshi.v123: Junior | Next Rank: 30 Posts; Posts: 19; Joined: Wed Aug 12, 2009 9:34 pm; Location: india; Thanked: 3 times

by joshi.v123 » Tue Mar 03, 2015 2:20 am

IMO B.

A is wrong because it say demographers have to know a great deal more than now knowledge is compare to now.

C,D,E is wrong because wrong tense would have to know

B is correct IMO.

Thanks,
VJ

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GMATGuruNY: GMAT Instructor; Posts: 15539; Joined: Tue May 25, 2010 12:04 pmFollowed by: 1906 members; Location: New York, NY; Thanked: 13060 times; GMAT Score:790

by GMATGuruNY » Tue Mar 03, 2015 6:09 am

To develop more accurate population forecasts, demographers have to know a great deal more than now about the social and economic determinants of fertility.

A. have to know a great deal more than now about the social and economic
B. have to know a great deal more than they do now about the social and economical
C. would have to know a great deal more than they do now about the social and economical
D. would have to know a great deal more than they do now about the social and economic
E. would have to know a great deal more than now about the social and economic

One purpose of the subjunctive is to convey a situation that is CONTRARY-TO-FACT or HYPOTHETICAL.
The intended meaning here is to compare what demographers KNOW NOW -- in reality -- to what they WOULD HAVE TO KNOW -- hypothetically -- to develop more accurate forecasts.
To make it clear that one action is real while the other is hypothetical, the hypothetical action must be in the subjunctive mood (WOULD have to know).
Eliminate A and B.

In C, economical -- which means thrifty -- does not convey the intended meaning.
The needed word here is ECONOMIC (which means related to the economy).
Eliminate C.

Generally, more than serves to compare two CLAUSES.
If the second clause omits a subject and verb, then the subject and verb from the first clause are implied.
E: demographers would have to know a great deal more than now
Here -- since the clause in red lacks a subject and verb -- the subject and verb from the first clause are implied:
Demographers would have to know a great deal more than [demographers would have to know] now.
The resulting meaning is nonsensical.
Eliminate E.

The correct answer is D.

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Mo2men: Legendary Member; Posts: 712; Joined: Fri Sep 25, 2015 4:39 amFollowed by: 5 members; Thanked: 14 times

by Mo2men » Tue Feb 21, 2017 4:37 am

GMATGuruNY wrote:
To develop more accurate population forecasts, demographers have to know a great deal more than now about the social and economic determinants of fertility.

A. have to know a great deal more than now about the social and economic
B. have to know a great deal more than they do now about the social and economical
C. would have to know a great deal more than they do now about the social and economical
D. would have to know a great deal more than they do now about the social and economic
E. would have to know a great deal more than now about the social and economic
One purpose of the subjunctive is to convey a situation that is CONTRARY-TO-FACT or HYPOTHETICAL.
The intended meaning here is to compare what demographers KNOW NOW -- in reality -- to what they WOULD HAVE TO KNOW -- hypothetically -- to develop more accurate forecasts.
To make it clear that one action is real while the other is hypothetical, the hypothetical action must be in the subjunctive mood (WOULD have to know).
Eliminate A and B.

In C, economical -- which means thrifty -- does not convey the intended meaning.
The needed word here is ECONOMIC (which means related to the economy).
Eliminate C.

Generally, more than serves to compare two CLAUSES.
If the second clause omits a subject and verb, then the subject and verb from the first clause are implied.
E: demographers would have to know a great deal more than now
Here -- since the clause in red lacks a subject and verb -- the subject and verb from the first clause are implied:
Demographers would have to know a great deal more than [demographers would have to know] now.
The resulting meaning is nonsensical.
Eliminate E.

The correct answer is D.

Dear Guru,

While I understand your point in the sentence above. I don't understand why It is not applicable to do the same for the following the sentence:

The increase in the number and scope of investigations into monopolistic business practices, in addition to the expansion of definitions of such practices, have resulted in more antimonopoly litigation presently than ever before.

(A) have resulted in more antimonopoly litigation presently than ever before
(B) has resulted in greater antimonopoly litigation presently than previously
(C) has resulted in more antimonopoly litigation at present than was seen ever before
(D) have resulted in more antimonopoly litigation at present than ever before
(E) has resulted in more antimonopoly litigation at present than ever before

OA E

Can you kindly clarify why subject+verb could be omitted?

Thanks

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GMATGuruNY: GMAT Instructor; Posts: 15539; Joined: Tue May 25, 2010 12:04 pmFollowed by: 1906 members; Location: New York, NY; Thanked: 13060 times; GMAT Score:790

by GMATGuruNY » Tue Feb 21, 2017 5:19 am

Mo2men wrote:Dear Guru,

While I understand your point in the sentence above. I don't understand why It is not applicable to do the same for the following the sentence:

Can you kindly clarify why subject+verb could be omitted?

The OA implies the following:
[There is] more antimonopoly litigation at present than [there has] ever [been antimonopoly litigation] before.
Here, the omitted verb in blue (has been) is in a different tense from the preceding implied verb (is).
The omitted verb in blue is a form of TO BE.
On the GMAT, an omitted verb may be in a different tense from the preceding verb if the omitted verb is a form of to be.
I discuss this issue here:
https://www.beatthegmat.com/comparison-t289039-15.html

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Mo2men: Legendary Member; Posts: 712; Joined: Fri Sep 25, 2015 4:39 amFollowed by: 5 members; Thanked: 14 times

by Mo2men » Tue Feb 21, 2017 6:04 am

GMATGuruNY wrote:
Mo2men wrote:Dear Guru,

While I understand your point in the sentence above. I don't understand why It is not applicable to do the same for the following the sentence:

Can you kindly clarify why subject+verb could be omitted?
The OA implies the following:
[There is] more antimonopoly litigation at present than [there has] ever [been antimonopoly litigation] before.
Here, the omitted verb in blue (has been) is in a different tense from the preceding implied verb (is).
The omitted verb in blue is a form of TO BE.
On the GMAT, an omitted verb may be in a different tense from the preceding verb if the omitted verb is a form of to be.
I discuss this issue here:
https://www.beatthegmat.com/comparison-t289039-15.html

Dear Guru,

[There is] more antimonopoly litigation at present than [there has] ever [been antimonopoly litigation] before.

Why did you mention 'there is'? in the sentence above, the main verb is 'has resulted'? what is the second verb should be? is it 'has been' or 'has resulted' also?

Can you please help?

Thanks

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GMATGuruNY: GMAT Instructor; Posts: 15539; Joined: Tue May 25, 2010 12:04 pmFollowed by: 1906 members; Location: New York, NY; Thanked: 13060 times; GMAT Score:790

by GMATGuruNY » Tue Feb 21, 2017 6:49 am

Mo2men wrote:
GMATGuruNY wrote:
Mo2men wrote:Dear Guru,

While I understand your point in the sentence above. I don't understand why It is not applicable to do the same for the following the sentence:

Can you kindly clarify why subject+verb could be omitted?
The OA implies the following meaning:
[There is] more antimonopoly litigation at present than [there has] ever [been antimonopoly litigation] before.
Here, the omitted verb in blue (has been) is in a different tense from the preceding implied verb (is).
The omitted verb in blue is a form of TO BE.
On the GMAT, an omitted verb may be in a different tense from the preceding verb if the omitted verb is a form of to be.
I discuss this issue here:
https://www.beatthegmat.com/comparison-t289039-15.html
Dear Guru,

[There is] more antimonopoly litigation at present than [there has] ever [been antimonopoly litigation] before.

Why did you mention 'there is'? in the sentence above, the main verb is 'has resulted'? what is the second verb should be? is it 'has been' or 'has resulted' also?

Can you please help?

Thanks

OA: The increase has resulted in more antimonopoly litigation at present than ever before.
Here, at present is not an adverb modifying has resulted but an ADJECTIVE modifying antimonopoly litigation.
A more precise completion of the ellipsis in the OA:
More antimonopology litigation [is] at present than [anitmonolopoly litigation has been] ever before.
The intended comparison, however, might be better expressed as follows:
There is more antimonopoly litigation at present than there has ever been antimonopoly litigation before.
Hence my explanation above.

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iongmat: Master | Next Rank: 500 Posts; Posts: 193; Joined: Tue May 24, 2011 5:14 amFollowed by: 1 member; Thanked: 6 times

by iongmat » Wed Feb 22, 2017 3:38 am

Hi Mitch, is has been also a form of to be?

Isn't it present perfect (and not to be)?

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GMATGuruNY: GMAT Instructor; Posts: 15539; Joined: Tue May 25, 2010 12:04 pmFollowed by: 1906 members; Location: New York, NY; Thanked: 13060 times; GMAT Score:790

by GMATGuruNY » Wed Feb 22, 2017 3:59 am

iongmat wrote:Hi Mitch, is has been also a form of to be?

Isn't it present perfect (and not to be)?

Every verb has a present perfect form.
The present perfect form of to be is has been.
John wants to be rich.
John is rich.
John has been rich.
The verbs in blue are all forms of to be.

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iongmat: Master | Next Rank: 500 Posts; Posts: 193; Joined: Tue May 24, 2011 5:14 amFollowed by: 1 member; Thanked: 6 times

by iongmat » Wed Feb 22, 2017 8:51 am

Hi Mitch, struggling to understand this:

Many airline carriers are attempting to increase profitability while keeping overhead low by offering, in terms of flights,the same number as last year but using larger planes that fly more efficiently.

I am interpreting this (and I think this is where I might be going wrong) as:

Many airline carriers are offering the same number as (airline carriers offered) last year.

But, when I do this kind of ellipsis, the assumed tense is totally changing: from Present continuous (are offering) to simple past (offered).

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GMATGuruNY: GMAT Instructor; Posts: 15539; Joined: Tue May 25, 2010 12:04 pmFollowed by: 1906 members; Location: New York, NY; Thanked: 13060 times; GMAT Score:790

by GMATGuruNY » Wed Feb 22, 2017 9:15 am

iongmat wrote:Hi Mitch, struggling to understand this:

Many airline carriers are attempting to increase profitability while keeping overhead low by offering, in terms of flights,the same number as last year but using larger planes that fly more efficiently.

I am interpreting this (and I think this is where I might be going wrong) as:

Many airline carriers are offering the same number as (airline carriers offered) last year.

But, when I do this kind of ellipsis, the assumed tense is totally changing: from Present continuous (are offering) to simple past (offered).

the same number as last year = the same number as [the number] last year.

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iongmat: Master | Next Rank: 500 Posts; Posts: 193; Joined: Tue May 24, 2011 5:14 amFollowed by: 1 member; Thanked: 6 times

by iongmat » Thu Feb 23, 2017 7:46 am

Hi Mitch, so, would be the following sentence be incorrect:

Prepared for the exam, Susan now wants to fare better in GMAT than ever before. (because the ellipsis is "than Susan has fared"; so, this is not "to be" and hence, incorrect).

But following would be correct:

Prepared for the exam, Susan is better prepared than last time. (because the ellipsis is "than Susan was"; so, this is "to be" and hence, correct).

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GMATGuruNY: GMAT Instructor; Posts: 15539; Joined: Tue May 25, 2010 12:04 pmFollowed by: 1906 members; Location: New York, NY; Thanked: 13060 times; GMAT Score:790

by GMATGuruNY » Fri Feb 24, 2017 5:42 am

iongmat wrote:Hi Mitch, so, would be the following sentence be incorrect:

Prepared for the exam, Susan now wants to fare better in GMAT than ever before. (because the ellipsis is "than Susan has fared"; so, this is not "to be" and hence, incorrect).

But following would be correct:

Prepared for the exam, Susan is better prepared than last time. (because the ellipsis is "than Susan was"; so, this is "to be" and hence, correct).

Neither sentence seems viable.
Consider the official examples in my last post here:
https://www.beatthegmat.com/comparison-t289039-15.html
In each example, both clauses include an adverb that refers to time, and the omitted verb in the second clause is NOT connected to a participle such as prepared.
Neither of these constraints is satisfied by the second sentence above.
Technically, is prepared is not a form of to be but a passive form of to prepare.
Note also that the words in red are redundant.

The following sentence seems viable:
Susan is stronger now than before.

That said, I do not recommend that you try to determine whether a made-up sentence would be valid on the GMAT.
On the GMAT, the goal is to choose not the correct answer but the BEST of five options.
Instead, consider official examples in which the omitted verb in the second clause implies a change in tense:
https://www.beatthegmat.com/heating-oil- ... 80576.html
https://www.beatthegmat.com/the-gyrfalco ... 83853.html
In these SCs, the OA is clearly better than the other four options, each of which contains at least one clear error.

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iongmat: Master | Next Rank: 500 Posts; Posts: 193; Joined: Tue May 24, 2011 5:14 amFollowed by: 1 member; Thanked: 6 times

by iongmat » Fri Feb 24, 2017 7:27 am

It just keep getting more confusing. As you've rightly mentioned, following is correct:

Susan is stronger now than before.

So, why is this incorrect:

Susan is better prepared now than before.

"prepared" is a participle (and hence, an adjective), while "stronger" is an adjective anyway. So, if the first sentence is correct, second should be correct as well.

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GMATGuruNY: GMAT Instructor; Posts: 15539; Joined: Tue May 25, 2010 12:04 pmFollowed by: 1906 members; Location: New York, NY; Thanked: 13060 times; GMAT Score:790

by GMATGuruNY » Fri Feb 24, 2017 9:31 am

iongmat wrote:It just keep getting more confusing. As you've rightly mentioned, following is correct:

Susan is stronger now than before.

So, why is this incorrect:

Susan is better prepared now than before.

"prepared" is a participle (and hence, an adjective), while "stronger" is an adjective anyway. So, if the first sentence is correct, second should be correct as well.

Forms of to be include is, are, was, were, has been, have been, etc.

Susan is stronger now than [she was strong] yesterday.
Here, there is no debate:
The implied verb in blue is clearly a past form of to be.

The red portions below constitute passive forms of to prepare:
X is prepared.
X and Y are prepared.
X was prepared.
X and Y were prepared.
X has been prepared.

Susan is better prepared now than [she was prepared] yesterday.
Here, the implied portion in red could be construed as a verb (was) followed by an adjective (prepared).
But this portion could also be considered a passive form of to prepare.
For this reason, the GMAT seems unlikely to omit the portion in red.

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