BREAKING: Target Test Prep releases Brand New 2026 On Demand GMAT prep course

Redeem

Exponents

Expert replies
Source: — Problem Solving |

by vishubn » Sat Nov 22, 2008 10:18 am
ya my takes is A

2^16-1 is the ans ! please confirm !!

its of the form
(a+b)(a-b)=a^2-b^2

so every term taken in this way leads to 2^16-1

if its the right OA please confirm ! as well post the entire explanantion :)

Vishu
KILL !! DIE !! or BEAT my FEAR !!! de@D END!!
Join the discussion

by earth@work » Sat Nov 22, 2008 12:11 pm
i m also getting A : 2^16-1
my method too same as vishu
(2^2-1)(2^2+1)(2^4+1)(2^8+1) = )(2^4-1)(2^4+1)(2^8+1)
=(2^8-1)(2^8+1)=2^16-1
Join the discussion

It is A

by Ossa » Sat Nov 22, 2008 4:44 pm
Hi,

Yes, the answer is A, and I think yours is the best way to do it.

earth@work wrote:i m also getting A : 2^16-1
my method too same as vishu
(2^2-1)(2^2+1)(2^4+1)(2^8+1) = )(2^4-1)(2^4+1)(2^8+1)
=(2^8-1)(2^8+1)=2^16-1
Ossa Elhadary, PhD, CISA, PMP
Math Specialist
Test Prep New York
maximize your score, minimize your stress

www.testprepny.com
[email protected]
Join the discussion