Kaplan:Probability

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Kaplan:Probability

by shubhamkumar » Sun Apr 15, 2012 11:25 am
A jury pool consists of 6 men and w women. If 2 jurors are selected from the pool at random, is the probability that 2 men will be selected higher than the probability that 1 man and 1 woman will be selected?

(1) w> 3

(2) w < 6

OA: A
Source: — Data Sufficiency |

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by Shalabh's Quants » Sun Apr 15, 2012 12:48 pm
shubhamkumar wrote:A jury pool consists of 6 men and w women. If 2 jurors are selected from the pool at random, is the probability that 2 men will be selected higher than the probability that 1 man and 1 woman will be selected?

(1) w> 3

(2) w < 6

OA: A
Prob. of selecting 2 men = 6C2/(6+w)C2 = 6*5/(6+w)*(5+w) ..........(1)

Prob. of selecting 1 men & 1 woman = 6C1*wC1/(6+w)C2 = 6*w/(6+w)*(5+w) ..........(2)

Comparing both probabilities

6*5/(6+w)*(5+w) > 6*w/(6+w)*(5+w) ?;

After cancellation, we get 5/2 > w; i.e. if women are less than 2.5 than condition holds true.

as per statment 1, w > 3, it gives finite answer as NO. Stat. 1 is suff.

Statement 2 is Not suff. as w < 6 can take 5, 4, 3, 2 & 1 values. For w = 5, 4, & 3 condn is untrue, but true for w = 2 & 1. hence Not suff.
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by pranjal.gaur24 » Sun Apr 22, 2012 1:31 am
Hi,
Even i believe the ans should be E.
In the solution, they have considered the order of selection as well. Hence, the probab. of selecting 1 man and 1 woman, is taken as 2! X 6C1*WC1/(6+w)(5+w)

I think, the order should not matter...??

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by Birottam Dutta » Sun Apr 22, 2012 3:36 am
I believe that order should not matter in this case.

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by MegW » Mon Dec 31, 2012 12:54 am

Prob. of selecting 2 men = 6C2/(6+w)C2 = 6*5/(6+w)*(5+w) ..........(1)

Prob. of selecting 1 men & 1 woman = 6C1*wC1/(6+w)C2 = 6*w/(6+w)*(5+w) ..........(2)

Comparing both probabilities

6*5/(6+w)*(5+w) > 6*w/(6+w)*(5+w) ?;

After cancellation, we get 5/2 > w
How after cancellation are you getting w < 5/2? it should be w< 5 right?

actually the kaplan in its explaination has given P(1M1W) = P(man first then woman) + P(woman first then man). and hence it comes to w< 5/2. I don't undertstand why have they considered the order important. Pls explain.

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by Brent@GMATPrepNow » Mon Dec 31, 2012 9:21 am
shubhamkumar wrote:A jury pool consists of 6 men and w women. If 2 jurors are selected from the pool at random, is the probability that 2 men will be selected higher than the probability that 1 man and 1 woman will be selected?

(1) w> 3

(2) w < 6
Target question: Is P(2 men) greater than P(1 man and 1 woman)?

Statement 1: w> 3
Let's see what happens if w = 3 (note: this is the best chance that P(2 men) will be greater than P(1 man and 1 woman)

P(2 men) = P(man selected 1st and man selected 2nd)
= (6/9)(5/8)
= 30/72

P(1 man and 1 woman) = P(man selected 1st and woman selected 2nd OR woman selected 1st and man selected 2nd)
= P(man selected 1st and woman selected 2nd) + P(woman selected 1st and man selected 2nd)
= (6/9)(3/8) + (3/9)(6/8)
= 18/72 + 18/72
= 36/72

So, when w = 3, P(2 men) is not greater than P(1 man and 1 woman)

IMPORTANT: Now that we've shown that P(2 men) is not greater than P(1 man and 1 woman) when w = 3, we can see that, as the value of w increases, the answer to the target question will always remain the same.

As such, statement 1 is SUFFICIENT

Statement 2: w < 6
Consider these two conflicting cases:

Case a: w = 1
P(2 men) = (6/7)(5/6)
= 30/42

P(1 man and 1 woman) = P(man selected 1st and woman selected 2nd OR woman selected 1st and man selected 2nd)
= P(man selected 1st and woman selected 2nd) + P(woman selected 1st and man selected 2nd)
= (6/7)(1/6) + (1/6)(6/7)
= 6/42 + 6/42
= 12/42

So, when w = 1, P(2 men) is greater than P(1 man and 1 woman)

Case b: w = 3
In statement 1, we already showed that, when w = 3, P(2 men) is not greater than P(1 man and 1 woman)

Since we cannot answer the target question with certainty, statement 2 is NOT SUFFICIENT

Answer = A

Cheers,
Brent
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by MegW » Tue Jan 01, 2013 3:57 am
Brent@GMATPrepNow wrote:
shubhamkumar wrote:A jury pool consists of 6 men and w women. If 2 jurors are selected from the pool at random, is the probability that 2 men will be selected higher than the probability that 1 man and 1 woman will be selected?

(1) w> 3

(2) w < 6
Target question: Is P(2 men) greater than P(1 man and 1 woman)?

Statement 1: w> 3
Let's see what happens if w = 3 (note: this is the best chance that P(2 men) will be greater than P(1 man and 1 woman)

P(2 men) = P(man selected 1st and man selected 2nd)
= (6/9)(5/8)
= 30/72

P(1 man and 1 woman) = P(man selected 1st and woman selected 2nd OR woman selected 1st and man selected 2nd)
= P(man selected 1st and woman selected 2nd) + P(woman selected 1st and man selected 2nd)
= (6/9)(3/8) + (3/9)(6/8)
= 18/72 + 18/72
= 36/72

So, when w = 3, P(2 men) is not greater than P(1 man and 1 woman)

IMPORTANT: Now that we've shown that P(2 men) is not greater than P(1 man and 1 woman) when w = 3, we can see that, as the value of w increases, the answer to the target question will always remain the same.

As such, statement 1 is SUFFICIENT

Statement 2: w < 6
Consider these two conflicting cases:

Case a: w = 1
P(2 men) = (6/7)(5/6)
= 30/42

P(1 man and 1 woman) = P(man selected 1st and woman selected 2nd OR woman selected 1st and man selected 2nd)
= P(man selected 1st and woman selected 2nd) + P(woman selected 1st and man selected 2nd)
= (6/7)(1/6) + (1/6)(6/7)
= 6/42 + 6/42
= 12/42

So, when w = 1, P(2 men) is greater than P(1 man and 1 woman)

Case b: w = 3
In statement 1, we already showed that, when w = 3, P(2 men) is not greater than P(1 man and 1 woman)

Since we cannot answer the target question with certainty, statement 2 is NOT SUFFICIENT

Answer = A

Cheers,
Brent
Thanks Brent for the explanation. However, I am still confused as to why do we have to take
P(1 man and 1 woman) = P(man selected 1st and woman selected 2nd OR woman selected 1st and man selected 2nd)
and why not
P(1 man and 1 woman) = P(man selected and woman selected). since both Probabilities are equal irrespective of who is selected 1st.

I am sorry but i am just confused. If you could help, that will be great! thanks.

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by Brent@GMATPrepNow » Tue Jan 01, 2013 9:18 am
MegW wrote:
Thanks Brent for the explanation. However, I am still confused as to why do we have to take
P(1 man and 1 woman) = P(man selected 1st and woman selected 2nd OR woman selected 1st and man selected 2nd)
and why not
P(1 man and 1 woman) = P(man selected and woman selected). since both Probabilities are equal irrespective of who is selected 1st.

I am sorry but i am just confused. If you could help, that will be great! thanks.
Good question.

It might be easier if I ask you a question in return, "Does the probability change if we select one person first or select both at once?"
For example, if you and your friend were in a group of people, and someone is selecting two people to go on a holiday. If we wanted to calculate the probability that you and your friend are both selected, would it make a difference how the two people are selected? That is, would it make a difference if the person selected 2 people simultaneously versus selecting 1 person and then another person?
The answer is no. As such, we can use the technique I used.

Cheers,
Brent
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