I had a problem with the question on the p. 235 of Princeton Review.
Is 1/m < 1/n?
1) m-n=3
2) 3n=m+2
Answer choice A is shown to be correct, that means Statment (1) is sufficient. But if we take 1 and -2 this statement doesn't suffice. 1/1 is NOT < - 1/2
What is the flaw in my logic? Can anyone help me? Thank you
Is 1/m < 1/n?
1) m-n=3
2) 3n=m+2
Answer choice A is shown to be correct, that means Statment (1) is sufficient. But if we take 1 and -2 this statement doesn't suffice. 1/1 is NOT < - 1/2
What is the flaw in my logic? Can anyone help me? Thank you












