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by simpu » Sat Jul 24, 2010 7:08 pm
If k, m, and p are integers, is k - m - p odd?
(1) k and m are even and p is odd.
(2) k, m, and p are consecutive integers.

I some how dont agree with OA
OA A
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by Rahul@gurome » Sat Jul 24, 2010 8:24 pm
Solution:
k - m - p = k - (m+p).
First consider (1) alone.
m is even and p is odd.
So m+p is odd.
k is even.
So k - (m+p) is odd.
Or (1) alone is sufficient to answer the question.

Next consider (2) alone.
Since k, m and p are consecutive integers, let m = k+1 and p = k+2.
So m+p is 2k+3.
Or k - (m+p) is k - (2k+3) = -k - 3.
So the value of k - (m+p) depends on whether k is even or odd.
Or (2) alone is not sufficient.

The correct answer is hence (A).
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by simpu » Sat Jul 24, 2010 8:29 pm
thanks a lot :)

this really helps!
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