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Junior | Next Rank: 30 Posts
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by spanlength » Thu Jun 26, 2008 10:12 pm
As per the question CP = $150
Selling Price = $150 + MP
Now MP = 40% * SP . let MP = $x
x = 40/100(150 + x )
100x = 40*150 + 40 x
60x= 40* 150
x = 100.

Hence the profit is $100.Becoz the MP was the extra amt which the dealer got from the sale.

Hoep this answers this question.Plz give the OA. :)
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by anjaligeorge1 » Thu Jun 26, 2008 10:50 pm
yep the answer should be 100
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by niraj_a » Fri Jun 27, 2008 2:54 am
i just backsolved it and that worked as well...
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by aakash82 » Fri Jun 27, 2008 9:10 am
spanlength wrote:As per the question CP = $150
Selling Price = $150 + MP
Now MP = 40% * SP . let MP = $x
x = 40/100(150 + x )
100x = 40*150 + 40 x
60x= 40* 150
x = 100.

Hence the profit is $100.Becoz the MP was the extra amt which the dealer got from the sale.

Hoep this answers this question.Plz give the OA. :)
Indeed the answer is $100. Thnks
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