Are you allowed to do the following with an inequality:
1/(k+1)>0
Multiply both sides by K+1
K+1>0
K>-1
... I've seen a couple people do this, and I'm wondering why you can multiply both sides by K+1, since you don't know whether K is positive or negative (which means you wouldn't know whether or not to flip the inequality sign).
1/(k+1)>0
Multiply both sides by K+1
K+1>0
K>-1
... I've seen a couple people do this, and I'm wondering why you can multiply both sides by K+1, since you don't know whether K is positive or negative (which means you wouldn't know whether or not to flip the inequality sign).
