BREAKING: Target Test Prep releases Brand New 2026 On Demand GMAT prep course

Redeem

DS. VARIANCE

Expert replies
Source: — Data Sufficiency |

by n@resh » Fri Sep 09, 2011 8:42 pm
[email protected] wrote:Q: WHAT IS THE STANDARD DEVIATION OF INTEGERS IN THE SET X
(SET X : A, B, C, D, E )

A: VARIANCE OF THE NO. IN THE SET X IS 5
B: RANGE OF THE SET IS 1
Option: A
Join the discussion

by sl750 » Fri Sep 09, 2011 11:17 pm
Variance is the square of SD. Therefore SD = sqrt(5). Sufficient

Statement 2 is insufficient
Join the discussion

by Ian Stewart » Mon Sep 12, 2011 1:27 am
[email protected] wrote:Q: WHAT IS THE STANDARD DEVIATION OF INTEGERS IN THE SET X
(SET X : A, B, C, D, E )

A: VARIANCE OF THE NO. IN THE SET X IS 5
B: RANGE OF THE SET IS 1
Where is this question from? It is not mathematically possible for a set to have a variance of 5 and a range of 1, so the two statements are completely incompatible. That can never happen on a real GMAT question.

In any case, variance is just the square of standard deviation, so Statement 1 is sufficient. Statement 2 is actually almost sufficient - there are only two possible values for the standard deviation. Normally, knowing the range doesn't tell you much of anything about standard deviation, but here we have a set of five integers with a range of 1. There aren't many sets like that. If our elements are, say, 3 and 4, the only such sets would be:

A = 3, 3, 3, 3, 4
B = 3, 3, 3, 4, 4
C = 3, 3, 4, 4, 4
D = 3, 4, 4, 4, 4

Sets A and D are just 'mirror images' of each other, and so must have the same standard deviation (if you work out the distances from each element to the mean, they will be identical but in reverse order). The same is true of sets B and C. It is true that set A and set B have different standard deviations, though, so Statement 2 is not sufficient.
For online GMAT math tutoring, or to buy my higher-level Quant books and problem sets, contact me at ianstewartgmat at gmail.com

ianstewartgmat.com
Join the discussion