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lilyfunwork
- Newbie | Next Rank: 10 Posts
- Posts: 1
- Joined: Tue Jun 29, 2010 12:57 pm
I noticed that in the gramma rules we can say,"Mary is smart than John." The verb to be for John can be omitted and implied.
However, if we go, "French wine tasts better than American wine." The sentence is considered incorrect. I have to say "French wine tasts better than American wine does." I am quite confused about the differences between the two structures. Can you explain to me what structure I can use "implied verb" and what structure I can't.
Please advise, thanks!
L.C.
However, if we go, "French wine tasts better than American wine." The sentence is considered incorrect. I have to say "French wine tasts better than American wine does." I am quite confused about the differences between the two structures. Can you explain to me what structure I can use "implied verb" and what structure I can't.
Please advise, thanks!
L.C.












