If \(K\) is the least positive integer that is divisible by every integer from 1 to 8 inclusive, then \(K =\)

This topic has expert replies
Source: — Problem Solving |

GMAT/MBA Expert

User avatar
GMAT Instructor
Posts: 16207
Joined: Mon Dec 08, 2008 6:26 pm
Location: Vancouver, BC
Thanked: 5254 times
Followed by:1268 members
GMAT Score:770
VJesus12 wrote:
Wed Aug 26, 2020 3:21 am
If \(K\) is the least positive integer that is divisible by every integer from 1 to 8 inclusive, then \(K =\)

A. 840
B. 2,520
C. 6,720
D. 20,160
E. 40,320

Answer: A

Source: Magoosh
A lot of integer property questions can be solved using prime factorization.
For questions involving divisibility, divisors, factors and multiples, we can say:
If N is divisible by k, then k is "hiding" within the prime factorization of N

Consider these examples:
24 is divisible by 3 because 24 = (2)(2)(2)(3)
Likewise, 70 is divisible by 5 because 70 = (2)(5)(7)
And 112 is divisible by 8 because 112 = (2)(2)(2)(2)(7)
And 630 is divisible by 15 because 630 = (2)(3)(3)(5)(7)

K is divisible by every integer from 1 to 8 inclusive
This means that there's a 2 "hiding" within the prime factorization of K, a 3 "hiding" within the prime factorization of K, a 4 "hiding" within the prime factorization of K, etc.

So, let's begin with a 2 "hiding" within the prime factorization of K.
This means that K = (2)(other numbers)

Also, if there's a 3 "hiding" within the prime factorization of K, then we need to add a 3 like so: K = (2)(3)

There's a 4 "hiding" within the prime factorization of K.
Since 4 = (2)(2), then we need to add a SECOND 2 to get: K = (2)(2)(3)

There's a 5 "hiding" within the prime factorization of K, so we'll add a 5 to get: K = (2)(2)(3)(5)

There's a 6 "hiding" within the prime factorization of K.
Since 6 = (2)(3), we can see that we ALREADY have a 6 "hiding" in the prime factorization: K = (2)(2)(3)(5)

There's a 7 "hiding" within the prime factorization of K, so we'll add a 7 to get: K = (2)(2)(3)(5)(7)

There's an 8 "hiding" within the prime factorization of K.
Since 8 = (2)(2)(2), we need to add a THIRD 2 to get: K = (2)(2)(2)(3)(5)(7)

We have now ensured that K is divisible by every integer from 1 to 8 inclusive. This means that we have found the LEAST possible value of K that satisfies the given conditions.
So, K = (2)(2)(2)(3)(5)(7) = 840

Answer: A

Cheers,
Brent
Brent Hanneson - Creator of GMATPrepNow.com
Image

GMAT/MBA Expert

User avatar
GMAT Instructor
Posts: 8086
Joined: Sat Apr 25, 2015 10:56 am
Location: Los Angeles, CA
Thanked: 43 times
Followed by:29 members
VJesus12 wrote:
Wed Aug 26, 2020 3:21 am
If \(K\) is the least positive integer that is divisible by every integer from 1 to 8 inclusive, then \(K =\)

A. 840
B. 2,520
C. 6,720
D. 20,160
E. 40,320

Answer: A

Solution:

We can just check the given answer choices starting from the smallest one: 840.

840 is divisible by 1 (any integer is divisible by 1).

840 is divisible by 2, 4 and 8 since the last one, two, and three digits of the number are divisible by 2, 4 and 8, respectively.

840 is divisible by 3 since the sum of the digits is 8 + 4 + 0 = 12.

840 is divisible by 5 since the last digit of the number is 0.

840 is divisible by 6 since it’s divisible by 2 and 3.

840 is divisible by 7 since 840/7 = 120.

Therefore, the smallest positive integer is divisible by every integer from 1 to 8 inclusive, is 840.

Answer: A

Scott Woodbury-Stewart
Founder and CEO
[email protected]

Image

See why Target Test Prep is rated 5 out of 5 stars on BEAT the GMAT. Read our reviews

ImageImage