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value of m?

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by vikram4689 » Sat Jul 02, 2011 1:55 am
answer is m!=1 because when m=1 p=0 and (m-n)/p will not hold true
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by sunilrawat » Sat Jul 02, 2011 3:02 am
m=1 makes the expression invalid.
I got it by plugging in the values.
what's the answer?

any other approach?
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by MBA.Aspirant » Sat Jul 02, 2011 1:29 pm
m can't = 1

1-1/p will make the faction = 0
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by goalevan » Sun Jul 03, 2011 7:53 pm
(m-n)/p = 2
m = 2p+1 (assuming that p does not equal zero)

If p is set to 0 then the original equation is invalid, because we would be dividing (m-1) by zero.

The result of m when p is set to zero is 1, therefore 1 is not a possible value of m.
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