We know that 1*2*3*4*5*6*7*8 is a multiple of a^n. We also know that both a and n are greater than 1.sachinkr wrote:GMAT prep Algebra problem on multiple of number.
I got C as answer., but the answer is B? I did not get why B is sufficient.
(2) n=6
So, a^6 is a factor of 1*2*3*4*5*6*7*8. In other words:
1*2*3*4*5*6*7*8/a*a*a*a*a*a is an integer.
Well, 8! has 7 2s as factors (2, 4=2*2, 6=2*3, 8=2*2*2), so a could be 2.
8! has only 2 3s as factors (3, 6=2*3), so a can't be 3.
Any other number is just too big.
So, if n=6, a must be 2.













