hi all,
This question has already been discussed in the BTG forum before, however I am yet to completely understand the soln.
Since John Locke acknowledged authorship of his political works only in a codicil to his will, the period during which the Second Treatise on Government was written has been established through a close analysis of Locke's reported activities near the time of publication; however, because no original manuscript has been found, what is much more difficult to determine are the personal reason Locke wrote the Treatise, the changes he might have made to his first version, and the extent to which the published version coheres with Locke's intentions.
A
has been established through a close analysis of Locke's reported activities near the time of publication; however, because no original manuscript has been found, what is much more difficult to determine are
B
has been established through a close analysis of Locke's reported activities near the time of publication; however, because no original manuscript has been found, what is much more difficult to determine is
C
have been established through a close analysis of Locke's reported activities near the time of publication; however, because no original manuscript has been found, what is much more difficult to determine is
D
have been established through a close analysis of Locke's reported activities near the time of publication; however, because no original manuscript has been found, what is much more difficult to determine are
E
are established through a close analysis of Locke's reported activities near the time of publication; however, because no original manuscript has been found, that which is much more difficult to determine is
Ans :A
I am having difficulty in understanding why the verb should be "is" instead of "are"
From the posts I have read, one trick provided to determine the verb is to invert the sentence into a subject verb object form. if the subject is singular, your verb will be too..
If I invert the sentence, I would say that
The personal reason Locke wrote the Treatise, the changes he might have made to his first version, and the extent to which the published version coheres with Locke's intentions are difficult to determine. I would use "are" because there are multiple things which are difficult to determine.
Any explanation is appreciated.
This question has already been discussed in the BTG forum before, however I am yet to completely understand the soln.
Since John Locke acknowledged authorship of his political works only in a codicil to his will, the period during which the Second Treatise on Government was written has been established through a close analysis of Locke's reported activities near the time of publication; however, because no original manuscript has been found, what is much more difficult to determine are the personal reason Locke wrote the Treatise, the changes he might have made to his first version, and the extent to which the published version coheres with Locke's intentions.
A
has been established through a close analysis of Locke's reported activities near the time of publication; however, because no original manuscript has been found, what is much more difficult to determine are
B
has been established through a close analysis of Locke's reported activities near the time of publication; however, because no original manuscript has been found, what is much more difficult to determine is
C
have been established through a close analysis of Locke's reported activities near the time of publication; however, because no original manuscript has been found, what is much more difficult to determine is
D
have been established through a close analysis of Locke's reported activities near the time of publication; however, because no original manuscript has been found, what is much more difficult to determine are
E
are established through a close analysis of Locke's reported activities near the time of publication; however, because no original manuscript has been found, that which is much more difficult to determine is
Ans :A
I am having difficulty in understanding why the verb should be "is" instead of "are"
From the posts I have read, one trick provided to determine the verb is to invert the sentence into a subject verb object form. if the subject is singular, your verb will be too..
If I invert the sentence, I would say that
The personal reason Locke wrote the Treatise, the changes he might have made to his first version, and the extent to which the published version coheres with Locke's intentions are difficult to determine. I would use "are" because there are multiple things which are difficult to determine.
Any explanation is appreciated.
