Jimat, the question says -
Govt has forced not to raise the priice and as a result, per capita expenditure for precription drug has increased. Right?
Now come to option D! This option says that - doctors are now prescribing drugs which are less costly than those high cost drugs. But it somehow does not say about the increment of the expenditure for prescription drug. Whereas A describes the manufacturer has started to produce some subsctitutes for those drugs. If so, govt rules will not have impact on this and it somehow weakens the govt rules. Am I clear, Jimat?
Prescription Drugs
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Hi Jimat:
For future reference I encourage you to use the 'Add image to post' feature when attaching an image. Here's some more info: https://www.beatthegmat.com/viewtopic.php?t=6135
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For future reference I encourage you to use the 'Add image to post' feature when attaching an image. Here's some more info: https://www.beatthegmat.com/viewtopic.php?t=6135
Thanks!
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