Weird question

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artstudent: Senior | Next Rank: 100 Posts; Posts: 62; Joined: Mon Mar 28, 2011 9:35 pm; Thanked: 4 times

by artstudent » Wed Jul 13, 2011 12:56 am

Is this question flawed?

I got D. because if all the element in the set is odd and because of condition A (if x is in the set then 1/x is also in the set) the set is just 1. That's the only number that will satisfy everything.

OA: "Since both 3 and 1 is in the set because they are both odd then 4 is also in the set" What? Doesn't condition 1 violate condition A?

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Source: Beat The GMAT — Data Sufficiency | Wed Jul 13, 2011 12:56 am

Frankenstein: Legendary Member; Posts: 1448; Joined: Tue May 17, 2011 9:55 amFollowed by: 53 members; Location: India; Thanked: 375 times

by Frankenstein » Wed Jul 13, 2011 1:06 am

Hi,
The question is actually fine. You have interpreted in a wrong way.
From(1):
W contains all odd numbers. It means all odd numbers are part of the set W. Therre can be other elements as well.
As 1,3 are part of the set of all odds, by condition(1), 1+3 = 4 should be part of W as well.
Sufficient

From(2):
1/4 is in W.
According to condition(2), for every x, 1/x should also be in W
So, 4 should definitely be in W
Sufficient

Hence, D

Cheers!

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