The value of the dollar in international markets will
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Hi Ashley,Ashley@VeritasPrep wrote:Received PMs about this one -- The above has it just right... and yes, that substitution is always valid as long as it doesn't result in tense errors. Frankenstein's post just above is right on, too.cyrwr1 wrote:I got this from gmatclub. I came across this and was confused about it.
What I think about this problem is that, if A were to be correct, it would be :
as it has been doing
B, simplifies that with "as it has done", I am not particular sure whether this substitution is always correct.
Overall, remember that both for GMAT purposes and for "real life" writing, your job is just to choose the best phrasing you can. If I were a teacher correcting the grammar of students' essays or something, I don't know that I'd call it an error necessarily to say "continue to increase as it has been," BUT it doesn't HAVE to be an error for us not to choose it -- it just has to be not as good as some other alternative. In this case we KNOW that (B) works for sure, because we know that "do" (and forms of it) can function for verbs as pronouns do for nouns, i.e. tell you to mentally repeat whatever verb they're referring to. If we go through that mental repetition, (B) says "as it has increased..." and so I've for sure got my verb in there. Some people would validly argue that "has been" can cue repetition in whatever form is necessary, which is why (A) may be acceptable, but if some part of you feels like "I wish there were a 'doing' tacked onto the end of (A)," and if no part of you has any reservations about (B), go with (B). It's obviously a lot more confidence-inspiring when you can rule answers out based on specific grammatical violations, but we always have to remember that sometimes an answer choice doesn't make the cut simply because it's not the best of the five options
Thanks for your response ....Clear one more thing i.e since in the original sentence we are using simple future tense "will continue" so can we reject option A on this basis also that option A uses present continuous tense "has been"??????
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Hmm... I don't really think we can reject it on those grounds. Option A, if you take it as "has been doing", is actually present perfect continuous, but option B is present perfect. (Present continuous would just be "is doing"; see also my post at https://www.beatthegmat.com/basics-of-pa ... tml#367845 for more on these.) Any of these tenses would clash with the future if I were trying to *relate* these events to each other chronologically or if one of them were embedded in a dependent clause that was subordinate to the other, but in this question the event of continuing to increase and the event of having increased are totally separate from each other and don't require any time linkage.aspirant2011 wrote: Hi Ashley,
Thanks for your response ....Clear one more thing i.e since in the original sentence we are using simple future tense "will continue" so can we reject option A on this basis also that option A uses present continuous tense "has been"??????
Ashley Newman-Owens
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I think the inclusion of ...continue to rise... in the first part of the sentence is a trap for the wrong answer choice with ...has been.... But the second part of the sentence gives a major clue: ...since...began. So, the answer choice should contain present perfect...has done... (has past participle).cyrwr1 wrote:The value of the dollar in international markets will continue to increase, as it has been since interest rates began to rise.
(A) as it has been
(B) as it has done
(C) which it has
(D) which it has been
(E) which it had been
OA: B
I got it correct but not completely confident on how to differentiate between A and B in the future. Please advise, thanks.
...has been... is present perfect continuous but missing a verb (past participle or -ing). I think the GMAT does not test present perfect continuous tense.
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