og 28

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og 28

by mundasingh123 » Fri Jul 08, 2011 9:36 am
Building on civilizations that preceded them in coastal Peru, the Mochica developed their own elaborate society, based on cultivating such crops like corn and beans, the harvesting of fish and shellfish, and exploiting other wild and domestic resources.

a) based on cultivating such crops like corn and beans, the harvesting of fish and shellfish, and exploiting

b) based on the cultivation of such crops as corn and beans, the harvesting of fish and seafood, and the exploitation of

c) and basing it on the cultivation of crops like corn and beans, harvesting fish and seafood, and the exploiting of

d) and they based it on their cultivation of crops such as corn and beans, the harvest of fish and seafood, and exploiting

e) and they based it on their cultivating such crops like corn and beans, their harvest of fish and shellfish, and they exploited
The OA is B
Now guys you know i know the OA .
What s the "based on" modifier modifying .It follows a comma so its not modifying society
I Seek Explanations Not Answers

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by Frankenstein » Fri Jul 08, 2011 9:51 am
What s the "based on" modifier modifying .It follows a comma so its not modifying society
Hi,
I don't get this. 'comma+verb-ed' act as adjective and modify preceding noun/noun phrases.
In this case, it describes 'elaborate society' only.
Cheers!

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by e-GMAT » Fri Jul 08, 2011 10:13 am
Please refer to this post for more discussion on this topic.

https://www.beatthegmat.com/einstein-s-t ... 38-15.html

If you ask me outside of GMAT, I would say that verb-ed modifier work pretty much in the same way as verb-ing modifiers do. i.e. they are versatile modifiers that modify preceding clause when they are separated by comma and the closest noun phrase when they are not separated by comma. Thus, in the context of general English, the sentence you have stated is correct. "worried" applies to John or the preceding clause. It basically extends the thought presented in the preceding clause.

But if you ask me in the context of GMAT, I would say that your understanding is correct. i.e. verb-ed modifiers always modify the closest noun phrase. Remember OG is the prescribed syllabus. And here are a few questions in OG that test the usage of verb-ed modifiers. OG12 #56, 25, 28.

OG12#56 - This is the one in which OG explicitly implies that since comma + verb-ed modifier modifies the closest noun, the sentence is incorrect.

Many of the earliest known images of Hindu deities in India date from the time of the Kushan empire, fashioned either from the...- This sentence is incorrect since modifier should modify the images but it modifies empire.

OG12#28 - In this sentence as well comma + verb-ed modifier modifies the preceding noun correctly. It does not modify the preceding clause. Explanation clearly states that the modifier modifies the elaborate society - which is the closest noun.

The Mochica developed their own elaborate society, based on cultivating ...

OG12#5 - https://www.beatthegmat.com/variations-i ... tml#361728

Hope this helps.

Thanks,

Payal

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by rishijhawar » Sat Jul 09, 2011 4:26 am
Payal, I am confused between your reply on #28 and the one from another expert (https://www.beatthegmat.com/sentence-co ... 697.html).
You mentioned that "comma + verb-ed modifier modifies the preceding noun (elaborate society)"

but the post says that "We don't need an additional modifier to define what society is being discussed. Since the past participle modifier (I guess he refers to 'based') does not define the society but only provides additional information about the society, it is preceded by a comma".

Appreciate your help.

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by e-GMAT » Sat Jul 09, 2011 6:57 am
Hi Rishi,

I believe in both posts, we are eluding to the same point :) See below:

Per this post: verb-ed modifiers modify the preceding noun.

Per the post (https://www.beatthegmat.com/sentence-cor ... 86697.html), details about the type of modification done with and without the comma are explained as follows:

1: Verb-ed modifiers when not separated by comma describe the preceding noun. I believe this implies such modifiers provide essential information. (remember that clause provides essential information and is not separated by comma)
2: Verb-ed modifiers when separated by comma provide additional information about the preceding noun. Or in other terms they provide non-essential information. (remember which clause provides non-essential information and is separated by comma)

Lastly, in that post, a scenario has been presented in which verb-ed modifier separated by comma applies to the subject of the preceding clause. Likewise, as I mentioned in this post, I have not as yet seen this usage in GMAT questions. So I do not believe this usage is tested in GMAT.

Hope this helps resolve the differences. In essence:
1: verb-ed modifiers modify preceding noun (with or without comma)
________1A: When not separated by comma, essential information is provided about the preceding noun.
________1B: When separated by comma, non-essential information is provided about the preceding noun.

Thanks,

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by rishijhawar » Sun Jul 10, 2011 1:44 am
Payal a basic question to confirm my understanding:
a word (modifier) need not "DEFINE" (as term used in the post I referred to) the preceding noun but provides additional info is still said to modify the preceding noun?
If yes, does this applies to other modifiers (adjectives, adverbs,)
Thanks for your help again.

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by e-GMAT » Mon Jul 11, 2011 9:53 am
Hi Rishi,

A modifier can either define the modified entity or it can simply describe or provide additional information about the modified entity. You can determine whether the modifier is defining or describing by the meaning of the sentence. However, I do not believe you need to make this distinction for the test.

And yes this applies to adjectives as well. For example:

This is red book. In this sentence "red" describes the "book".
This is John's book. In this sentence "John's" defines the modified entity "book". Note that "John's" acts as an adjective in this sentence.
Belgian coffee is my favorite. In this sentence "Belgian" defines the coffee.
I prefer dark chocolate to milk chocolate. In this sentence "dark" and "milk" define chocolate.

The "defining" part may not apply to adverbs because adverbs typically provide additional information about the modified entities.

Thanks,

Payal

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by amit2k9 » Mon Jul 11, 2011 10:32 pm
usage of complex gerund and such as being tested here.
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