Standard Deviation

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Standard Deviation

by lmcelduff » Sun Feb 20, 2011 4:32 pm
Hello, I was working through a GMAT Math CAT and could not solve this problem:

The members of the newest recruiting class of a certain military organization are taking their physical conditioning test, and those who score in the bottom 16 percent will have to retest. If the scores are normally distributed and have an arithmetic mean of 72, what is the score at or below which the recruits will have to retest?

(1) There are 500 recruits in the class.

(2) 10 recruits scored 82 or higher.

Help would be greatly appreciated!!

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by stormier » Sun Feb 20, 2011 6:16 pm
lmcelduff wrote:Hello, I was working through a GMAT Math CAT and could not solve this problem:

The members of the newest recruiting class of a certain military organization are taking their physical conditioning test, and those who score in the bottom 16 percent will have to retest. If the scores are normally distributed and have an arithmetic mean of 72, what is the score at or below which the recruits will have to retest?

(1) There are 500 recruits in the class.

(2) 10 recruits scored 82 or higher.

Help would be greatly appreciated!!
A normal distribution is a bell-shaped curve, symmetrical about its mean. You can read more about it here:

https://mathworld.wolfram.com/NormalDistribution.html

So imagine a frequency distribution plot, showing frequency (count of students) on the y-axis and score on the x-axis. The question stimulus asks the score at or blow which the recruits will have to retest. In other words, its asking the point on the x-axis to the left of which 16 % of students lie.

To be able to answer this, the distribution curve must be known completely. i.e. you should not only know the height of the curve, but also the width of the curve (typically characterized by FWHM - Full Width at Half Maximum)

Mean = 72 => the bell curve is symmetrical about x=72.

1. There are a total of 500 students.


From this information alone you cannot "fix" the curve. For example, you could have 400 students at score of 72, and 50 each at score of 70 and 74. In such a case the bell would be very narrow and sharp looking - high at the mean and narrow width.

You could also have a broad-looking curve -> 200 at 72, 100 each at 60 and 84, and 50 each at 50 and 94.

In other words, statement 1 says that area under the curve is 500, but does not give any information on the width or height of the curve. The curve can be drawn in several ways, hence INSUFFICIENT.

2. 10 recruits scored 82 or higher.

From this information alone, a fixed curve cannot be drawn. Since the total number of students is not known, one could a curve such that 10 have 82 or higher score, any number of students at the mean value of 72. It could be a 100 or 1000. i.e. with this information, the height of the curve cannot be fixed. Hence INSUFFICIENT.

Combine the two ->

Now, parameters required to fix the curve are known.

Area under the curve = 500. The mean = 72. A point on the right of the mean through which the curve passes. (1) and (2) combined are sufficient to fix the curve and hence answer the question.

Answer C.

However, this question is outside the GMAT scope and would never appear on the test.

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by lmcelduff » Mon Feb 21, 2011 1:50 pm
Thank you for your thorough response! Furthermore, your response helps me to understand the Gaussian normalized bell-shaped curve a little bit better. (I thought this question was testing the 3 sigma rule of statistics with respect to standard deviation, but your response assures me that it wasn't).

However, a comment if I may: what specifically about this question is outside the scope of current GMAT? (fyi: this question was taken off of a 2009 Math CAT, so it may be a little outdated)

Thanks!
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by btgyes » Mon Feb 21, 2011 10:55 pm
Guys...

Acc to me ans is B

and score below which failures have to take retest is 62

Plz confirm OA

am damn sure ans must be B

It would be great if expert could look at this ques and comment...

thanks...

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by sanju09 » Tue Feb 22, 2011 1:17 am
lmcelduff wrote:Hello, I was working through a GMAT Math CAT and could not solve this problem:

The members of the newest recruiting class of a certain military organization are taking their physical conditioning test, and those who score in the bottom 16 percent will have to retest. If the scores are normally distributed and have an arithmetic mean of 72, what is the score at or below which the recruits will have to retest?

(1) There are 500 recruits in the class.

(2) 10 recruits scored 82 or higher.

Help would be greatly appreciated!!
OA is C

see the excellent explanation by rockeyb here...


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by btgyes » Tue Feb 22, 2011 3:12 am
btgyes wrote:Guys...

Acc to me ans is C

and score below which failures have to take retest is 67

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by BarryLi » Tue Feb 22, 2011 3:20 am
Is anyone else surprised to see knowledge of the normal distribution as a requirement for being able to answer this question?

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by sanju09 » Tue Feb 22, 2011 3:31 am
BarryLi wrote:Is anyone else surprised to see knowledge of the normal distribution as a requirement for being able to answer this question?
knowledge of the normal distribution and bell curve (not very deep rooted) is always necessary for those aiming 720+ on GMAT
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by btgyes » Tue Feb 22, 2011 4:29 am
btgyes wrote:Guys...

C is fine...

Can Experts plz confirm the ans... acc to me it should be 72-5=67

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by lmcelduff » Tue Feb 22, 2011 5:59 am
I present this question to sanju09 (the website-cited GMAT expert):
for all future problems on the GMAT where standard deviation is involved, and they use the term normally distributed, am I always going to use the 34%, 14%, 2% bell curve to represent 1st, 2nd, and 3rd SD? The reason I ask is because in prior statistics classes, I have also seen normalized standard deviation to be defined as 1σ* = 68%, 2σ = 95%, 3σ = 99%. Could you please confirm/deny my posit to your inquiry, as I wanted to be certain as to the accuracy of this approach?

Furthermore, according to the response received from user stormier, the question I presented is outside the scope of the current GMAT and therefore irrelevant altogether. Could you also provide brief commentary on whether or not this is true?

to user BarryLi: I also was confused as to why this question would be on the GMAT, as all the literature I have read thus far about this test states that only basic knowledge need be applied to take this exam. It seems you would need to know a little bit about statistics/SD curve to answer this question.

Thanks!


*σ = SD
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by Night reader » Tue Feb 22, 2011 11:57 am
hi stormier, yes it's quite solvable, and if we take rockeyb's approach here https://www.beatthegmat.com/hard-questio ... tml#342343 and take mean of (95%+99.7%) 97.35%, further derive (3 standard deviations)/2 and adjust our confidence interval ... could be done

obviously not the GMAT's 75 sec. topic tested - took me back into business stats class
stormier wrote:
lmcelduff wrote:Hello, I was working through a GMAT Math CAT and could not solve this problem:

The members of the newest recruiting class of a certain military organization are taking their physical conditioning test, and those who score in the bottom 16 percent will have to retest. If the scores are normally distributed and have an arithmetic mean of 72, what is the score at or below which the recruits will have to retest?

(1) There are 500 recruits in the class.

(2) 10 recruits scored 82 or higher.

Help would be greatly appreciated!!
A normal distribution is a bell-shaped curve, symmetrical about its mean. You can read more about it here:

https://mathworld.wolfram.com/NormalDistribution.html

So imagine a frequency distribution plot, showing frequency (count of students) on the y-axis and score on the x-axis. The question stimulus asks the score at or blow which the recruits will have to retest. In other words, its asking the point on the x-axis to the left of which 16 % of students lie.

To be able to answer this, the distribution curve must be known completely. i.e. you should not only know the height of the curve, but also the width of the curve (typically characterized by FWHM - Full Width at Half Maximum)

Mean = 72 => the bell curve is symmetrical about x=72.

1. There are a total of 500 students.


From this information alone you cannot "fix" the curve. For example, you could have 400 students at score of 72, and 50 each at score of 70 and 74. In such a case the bell would be very narrow and sharp looking - high at the mean and narrow width.

You could also have a broad-looking curve -> 200 at 72, 100 each at 60 and 84, and 50 each at 50 and 94.

In other words, statement 1 says that area under the curve is 500, but does not give any information on the width or height of the curve. The curve can be drawn in several ways, hence INSUFFICIENT.

2. 10 recruits scored 82 or higher.

From this information alone, a fixed curve cannot be drawn. Since the total number of students is not known, one could a curve such that 10 have 82 or higher score, any number of students at the mean value of 72. It could be a 100 or 1000. i.e. with this information, the height of the curve cannot be fixed. Hence INSUFFICIENT.

Combine the two ->

Now, parameters required to fix the curve are known.

Area under the curve = 500. The mean = 72. A point on the right of the mean through which the curve passes. (1) and (2) combined are sufficient to fix the curve and hence answer the question.

Answer C.

However, this question is outside the GMAT scope and would never appear on the test.
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by stormier » Tue Feb 22, 2011 7:25 pm
lmcelduff wrote:I present this question to sanju09 (the website-cited GMAT expert):
for all future problems on the GMAT where standard deviation is involved, and they use the term normally distributed, am I always going to use the 34%, 14%, 2% bell curve to represent 1st, 2nd, and 3rd SD? The reason I ask is because in prior statistics classes, I have also seen normalized standard deviation to be defined as 1σ* = 68%, 2σ = 95%, 3σ = 99%. Could you please confirm/deny my posit to your inquiry, as I wanted to be certain as to the accuracy of this approach?

Furthermore, according to the response received from user stormier, the question I presented is outside the scope of the current GMAT and therefore irrelevant altogether. Could you also provide brief commentary on whether or not this is true?

to user BarryLi: I also was confused as to why this question would be on the GMAT, as all the literature I have read thus far about this test states that only basic knowledge need be applied to take this exam. It seems you would need to know a little bit about statistics/SD curve to answer this question.

Thanks!


*σ = SD

The GMAT does not expect you to memorize things. I've seen question on volume of a cone where the formula (1/3pi r^2 h) was provided!!

I don't think the test will expect you to remember that 68% lie within 1 SD etc. That's the very reason, I suggested an approach that does not require you to memorize SD etc.

When you say the question appeared in a 2009 CAT - What CAT are you talking about ? was it an official question ? or was it from one of the prep courses ?

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by sanju09 » Wed Feb 23, 2011 12:43 am
lmcelduff wrote:I present this question to sanju09 (the website-cited GMAT expert):
for all future problems on the GMAT where standard deviation is involved, and they use the term normally distributed, am I always going to use the 34%, 14%, 2% bell curve to represent 1st, 2nd, and 3rd SD? The reason I ask is because in prior statistics classes, I have also seen normalized standard deviation to be defined as 1σ* = 68%, 2σ = 95%, 3σ = 99%. Could you please confirm/deny my posit to your inquiry, as I wanted to be certain as to the accuracy of this approach?

Furthermore, according to the response received from user stormier, the question I presented is outside the scope of the current GMAT and therefore irrelevant altogether. Could you also provide brief commentary on whether or not this is true?

to user BarryLi: I also was confused as to why this question would be on the GMAT, as all the literature I have read thus far about this test states that only basic knowledge need be applied to take this exam. It seems you would need to know a little bit about statistics/SD curve to answer this question.

Thanks!


*σ = SD

Sorry for joining you so late lmcelduff, and thanks for citing me to answer.

Referring to the bell curve again, yes you can use the34%, 14%, 2% bell curve to represent 1st, 2nd, and 3rd SD to any one side of the line of symmetry that divides the bell curve into two halves, whereas one standard deviation away from the mean (the line of symmetry) in either direction on the horizontal axis accounts for roughly 68 percent of the data in this group. Two standard deviations away from the mean account for nearly 95 percent of the data, and three standard deviations away from the mean account for about 99 percent of the data. So neither rockeyb's nor yours information is wrong.

This question is NOT outside the GMAT as GMAT never expects you to calculate the standard deviation for them. All it expects of you is to understand, what standard deviation is and what are the chief ingredients that help you grasp it properly, and what could find you in a position to calculate it as well.

Our question is clearly asking for a score that is two SD below the mean, to answer which we must have the SD known along with the already provided mean in the stem. The terms you'll need to know in order to calculate the SD are

x = one value in your set of data

Average (x) = the mean (average) of all values x in your set of data

n = the number of values x in your set of data

For each value x, subtract the Average (x) from x, then square it. Sum up all those squared values and then divide that result by (n - 1). You get the variance of data; take its square root to get the standard deviation of your set of data.

But a typical GMAT DS like this one is still not asking you to do all that, but as expected, if you knew all that then it won't have taken you time to decide that each statement alone is not sufficient to answer and taken together enables us to know that a set of 500 data points has averaged 72 whose 2 percent scored 82 or higher, and 82 being to the right of 72 along the horizontal axis means that 82 is 3 SD above the mean, i.e.

72 + 3 × SD = 82, and SD can now be obtained to answer 72 - 2 × SD

[spoiler]Hence C[/spoiler]
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by lmcelduff » Wed Feb 23, 2011 5:43 pm
to user stormier: let me restate the source of my inquiry, it was a Princeton Review 2009 Math Practice Test, not a CAT

Big thanks to sanju09 and stormier for their discerning input. (or should i say 'in response to their discerning input', ahh idiomatic dilemma!!) jk, appreciate it guys!
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by Stuart@KaplanGMAT » Thu Feb 24, 2011 2:22 pm
I've been teaching the GMAT for 20+ years and I've neither seen nor heard of an actual GMAT question that requires you to know the values of a normal distribution. If anyone has seen one, I'd love to hear about it!
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