PLEASE HELP ME I COULDN'T GET THIS CONCEPT I SAW IN A POST

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One more thing... just to be aware of. The inversion of subejct and verb is OBLIGATORY when sentences begin with adverbs/adverbial phrases that tell:

- Where
- To what extent

... and there is no comma after the adverb or adverbial phrase.

Here are some examples with adverbs of place:

Between the two coffee shops is a nice little newsstand.
There are no girls who can jump higher than Karen.

(Yes, "there" is an adverb telling us "where.")

Here are some examples with adverbs of degree:

Not in a million years will I find a maid so lovely as she.
Never have I ever been arrested.
Twice did he call for his son.

Note: in contemporary English, inversion is no longer obligatory for non-negative adverbs of degree, so "Twice he called for his son" would also be acceptable. However, "Never I have ever been arrested" would be completely wrong, as would be, "Between the two coffee shops a nice little newsstand is" (unless your name is Yoda).

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by machichi » Mon Sep 03, 2012 11:03 am
What's the question? I don't recall ever seeing a question on the GMAT that addresses inversion, but it definitely exists and could easily be assessed.

Your examples are all correct. I think the key is that sentences require inversion when started with a negative.

"Neither of us will she believe."
"Never will I talk to her after this betrayal."

I'd never though of "There is/are" as an example of inversion. Quite interesting.

The place that many non-native speakers mess up is when question words are actually conjunctions and don't require inversion.

Normally you'd say: "Why are you here?"

It's right to say: "I don't know why you are here" and wrong to say "I don't know why are you here." Yes, question words use inversion, but this is an example of how question words have two uses.

Not sure if that helps!
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