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OG 11, DS # 139

Expert replies
Source: — Data Sufficiency |

Re: OG 11, DS # 139

by Vemuri » Sun Mar 08, 2009 2:58 am
You seem to have forgotten to post the 2 statements that are required to solve the DS question.
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by rseeker2 » Mon Mar 09, 2009 8:00 am
Sorry... I thought the reference would be enough, as I presumed that everybody would be using the OG. Anyways, here is the question:

If x != -y, is x-y/x+y > 1 ?

1) x > 0
2) y < 0
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Re: OG 11, DS # 139

by Ian Stewart » Mon Mar 09, 2009 2:43 pm
rseeker2 wrote: x-y/x+y > 1

x-y > x+y
Your mistake is in the line above: you don't know whether x+y is negative. If x+y is negative, when you multiply both sides by x+y, you'd need to reverse the inequality.

This is probably the most common trap in GMAT inequality questions. If you are ever tempted to multiply or divide on both sides of an inequality by an unknown, *always* ask yourself: do I know the sign of this unknown? If you don't know whether the unknown is positive or negative, you can't multiply or divide by it, since you won't know what direction the inequality should face afterwards.
For online GMAT math tutoring, or to buy my higher-level Quant books and problem sets, contact me at ianstewartgmat at gmail.com

ianstewartgmat.com
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by rseeker2 » Mon Mar 09, 2009 9:32 pm
Thanks Ian!
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by Vemuri » Mon Mar 09, 2009 10:56 pm
My answer is E. What is the OA?
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by rseeker2 » Tue Mar 10, 2009 8:51 am
Hi Vemuri

OA is E.
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by dario.brignone » Fri Mar 09, 2012 11:45 pm
As we don't know the sign of the variables we cannot divide/multiply.

But can we do this?:

(X-Y-X-Y)/(X+Y) > 0

-2Y/(X+Y) > 0


Thanks.
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