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GMAT Prep question - really tough one - LCM, GCF factor etc.

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Source: — Data Sufficiency |
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by VP_Tatiana » Wed Jun 18, 2008 5:44 am
Hi there,

I'm taking to mean 2<m<p>1 to mean 2<m<p>1. However, this seems a little redundant as if 2<p then of course 1<p.

1 is insufficient on its own because more than one value of m and p satisfy the condition. For instance, we could have p=6, m =4, or p=10 and m=8.


2 is insufficient on its own again because more than one value of m and p satisfy the condition. For instance, we could have p=6, m =5, or p = 10 and m=3.

However, I can only find one value of m and p that satisfies both conditions: p =30, m =2. Thus, 1+2 together are sufficient and the answer is C. I don't know why your guide says the answer is A; the only thing I can think of is that maybe you meant something else by 2<m<p>1. Let me know.

Best wishes,

Tatiana
Tatiana Becker | GMAT Instructor | Veritas Prep
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by egybs » Wed Jun 18, 2008 1:33 pm
What's the question!?
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by rakesheval » Sat Jun 21, 2008 8:32 am
i think the answer should be E instead of A or C...two sets (30,2) and (6,10) satisfy both the conditions given in the two statements..
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