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Register now and save up to $200 Available with Beat the GMAT members only code • 5-Day Free Trial 5-day free, full-access trial TTP Quant Available with Beat the GMAT members only code • Free Veritas GMAT Class Experience Lesson 1 Live Free Available with Beat the GMAT members only code • 1 Hour Free BEAT THE GMAT EXCLUSIVE Available with Beat the GMAT members only code • Most awarded test prep in the world Now free for 30 days Available with Beat the GMAT members only code • Magoosh Study with Magoosh GMAT prep Available with Beat the GMAT members only code • Free Trial & Practice Exam BEAT THE GMAT EXCLUSIVE Available with Beat the GMAT members only code • 5 Day FREE Trial Study Smarter, Not Harder Available with Beat the GMAT members only code • Get 300+ Practice Questions 25 Video lessons and 6 Webinars for FREE Available with Beat the GMAT members only code • Free Practice Test & Review How would you score if you took the GMAT Available with Beat the GMAT members only code ## GMAT Prep - Q35 tagged by: rolandprowess This topic has 3 member replies maxim730 Senior | Next Rank: 100 Posts Joined 26 Dec 2006 Posted: 76 messages Followed by: 2 members #### GMAT Prep - Q35 Wed Mar 14, 2007 6:24 pm See attached Image. I'm having trouble setting up an equation for the problem.. I'm missing something simple. Thanks!!! Answer: C Attachments This post contains an attachment. You must be logged in to download/view this file. Please login or register as a user. ### Top Member Roland2rule Legendary Member Joined 30 Aug 2017 Posted: 667 messages Followed by: 3 members Sat Nov 04, 2017 11:38 pm let the cost price of the two shares of stock be x and y. on X, he had a profit of 20% and on Y, he had a loss of 20%. since selling price= cost price +/- cost price (%profit). this implies that selling price of the first share = x + x(20%) (profit) 96= x + 0.2x 96= 1.2x $$x=\frac{96}{1.2}=80$$ Also, the selling price of the second share = y - y(20%) (loss) 96= y - 0.2y 96= 0.8y $$y=\frac{96}{0.8}=120$$ Now, on the sale of both shares combined, selling prices=$(96 + 96) = $192 since profit/loss = x+y = 120+80=$200
since profit/loss = selling price - cost price (192-200) = -$8 (loss) and percent profit/loss = (profit/loss amount * 100%) / cost price $$=\frac{8}{200}\cdot100\%\ =4\%$$ therefore, he had a loss of 4% on both shares combined which is equivalent to a loss of$8.

Neo2000 Legendary Member
Joined
27 Jan 2007
Posted:
519 messages
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Test Date:
30/09
Target GMAT Score:
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Wed Mar 14, 2007 11:59 pm
This kind of a transaction will always result in a loss and the %loss will be of the form

(X^2)/100 where X = %Profit or %Loss

In this case (20^2)/100 = 400/100 = 4% loss

jayhawk2001 Community Manager
Joined
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Wed Mar 14, 2007 8:27 pm
Let the buying price for the stocks be x and y resp.

1.2x = 96, so x = 80. Hence profit = 16$.8y = 96, so y = 120. Hence loss = 24$

So net loss = 8\$

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