Can "It" still be Correct without having an antece

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venjam: Junior | Next Rank: 30 Posts; Posts: 18; Joined: Tue Feb 22, 2011 8:22 pm

Can "It" still be Correct without having an antece

by venjam » Thu Jul 26, 2012 4:42 pm

Question from OG
To Josephine Baker, Paris was her home long before it was fashionable to be an expatriate, and she remained in France during the Second World War as a performer and an intelligence agent for the resistance.
Correct Answer Choice is

Long before it was fashionable to be an expatriate, Josephine Baker made Paris her home,

The word "it" in the answer choice has no antecedent,Can some one please explain,how this can be correct?

Thanks

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Jim@StratusPrep: MBA Admissions Consultant; Posts: 2279; Joined: Fri Nov 11, 2011 7:51 am; Location: New York; Thanked: 660 times; Followed by:266 members; GMAT Score:770

by Jim@StratusPrep » Thu Jul 26, 2012 4:52 pm

Yes, this is very rare though. Similar to: It is cold outside.

In my example 'it' clearly refers to the weather.

In this sentence, the 'it' refers the idea of expatriatism being popular.

Again, rare case and really should be avoided by saying 'Long before expatriatism was fashionable'

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venjam: Junior | Next Rank: 30 Posts; Posts: 18; Joined: Tue Feb 22, 2011 8:22 pm

by venjam » Thu Jul 26, 2012 5:38 pm

Jim,

Now it makes sense. Is this the same case for sentences starting with "Being"

Please clarify

Thanks

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