A fifty-year accord signed in 1994 by the United States, Canada, and Mexico dictated the reduction of tariffs that member nations had been permitted to levy on imports from other member nations.
A
dictated the reduction of tariffs that member nations had been permitted to levy
B
dictated the tariff reduction that member nations had been levying
C
dictates the tariff reduction member nations were permitted to levy
D
dictated the reduction of tariffs that member nations are permitted to levy
E
dictates the reduction of tariffs permitted for levying by member nations
A dictated the reduction of tariffs that member nations had
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In C and E, dictates should not be in the present tense, since the reduction was DICTATED by the accord SIGNED IN 1994.himu wrote:A fifty-year accord signed in 1994 by the United States, Canada, and Mexico dictated the reduction of tariffs that member nations had been permitted to levy on imports from other member nations.
A
dictated the reduction of tariffs that member nations had been permitted to levy
B
dictated the tariff reduction that member nations had been levying
C
dictates the tariff reduction member nations were permitted to levy
D
dictated the reduction of tariffs that member nations are permitted to levy
E
dictates the reduction of tariffs permitted for levying by member nations
Eliminate C and E.
In A and B, had been permitted and had been levying should not be in the past perfect tense, since the fifty-year accord is STILL IN EFFECT: the tariffs that member nations ARE PERMITTED to levy -- right now, in the present -- is based upon the accord.
Eliminate A and B.
The correct answer is D.
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The tariffs that member nations ARE PERMITTED to levy -- even today -- is determined by the fifty-year accord.ritind wrote:Mitch shouldn't it be dictates coz the accord is still present and the nations are adhering to it.
But the REDUCTION of tariffs took place only ONCE: when the accord was signed in 1994.
After the initial reduction, the tariffs REMAINED at the reduced level.
Since the reduction took place only once -- in 1994 -- we must say:
The accord DICTATED (in 1994) the reduction of tariffs that member nations ARE PERMITTED (even today) to levy on imports.
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Hey ritind - I agree with you that that distinction is a little touchy. For the record, this question is ripoff of the official GMAT version linked here (https://www.beatthegmat.com/a-1972-agree ... 66453.html)in which the verb is a little more concrete and in line with how Mitch explained it.
In this case, "reduced" is something that can only be done once, so the official GMAT version (this one's in a couple of the different Official Guide volumes) is much more absolute. In the version that started this thread, I think you could make a case either way, but please refer to the official question to make sure you get the concept.A 1972 agreement between Canada and the United States reduced the amount of phosphates that municipalities had been allowed to dump into the Great Lakes.
(A) reduced the amount of phosphates that municipalities had been allowed to dump
(B) reduced the phosphate amount that municipalities had been dumping
(C) reduces the phosphate amount municipalities have been allowed to dump
(D) reduced the amount of phosphates that municipalities are allowed to dump
(E) reduces the amount of phosphates allowed for dumping by municipalities
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I have a doubt in this question. I answered this question with A. The past perfect tense here indicates that the original tariff was levied on imports before the accord signed in 1994. The accord dictated the nations to reduce the tariff after that. Am I correct in my understanding or is there a fault?
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Good question - and like I said I don't think the version originally posted in this thread is completely airtight and we know that it's not an official question, so let me explain the logic on that official one I posted just a post or two above.I have a doubt in this question. I answered this question with A. The past perfect tense here indicates that the original tariff was levied on imports before the accord signed in 1994. The accord dictated the nations to reduce the tariff after that. Am I correct in my understanding or is there a fault?
In that case, the verb in question is "are allowed to dump" vs. "had been allowed to dump". And the idea of the agreement going back in time (past perfect tense means "further back in time") to tell municipalities to take back what they dumped is illogical. That dumping is done. What is logical, though is the idea that this agreement could still be on the books - that the amount was X and is now Y (ever since 1972). So because the agreement couldn't logically be applied retroactively, but could very logically still be in effect, the correct answer to the official question is D.
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Thank you for the reply. I get the drift now. Its more of logical connect here that is required in these questions to arrive at the possibly correct answer.