5-Day Free Trial
5-day free, full-access trial TTP
Available with Beat the GMAT members only code
MORE DETAILS
#70 GMAT 2017
This topic has expert replies
GMAT/MBA Expert
-
[email protected]
- Elite Legendary Member
- Posts: 10392
- Joined: Sun Jun 23, 2013 6:38 pm
- Location: Palo Alto, CA
- Thanked: 2867 times
- Followed by:511 members
- GMAT Score:800
Hi jmacym,
This question can be solved by TESTing VALUES. I'm going to give you a couple of hints to get you started (so that you can finish the problem on your own):
1) To start, choose a small value for P (try P = 2).
2) Next, solve for R.
3) Plug P = 2 into the answer choices (make sure to check all 5). Which of them equals the value for R that you solved for?
GMAT assassins aren't born, they're made,
Rich
This question can be solved by TESTing VALUES. I'm going to give you a couple of hints to get you started (so that you can finish the problem on your own):
1) To start, choose a small value for P (try P = 2).
2) Next, solve for R.
3) Plug P = 2 into the answer choices (make sure to check all 5). Which of them equals the value for R that you solved for?
GMAT assassins aren't born, they're made,
Rich
-
GMATGuruNY
- GMAT Instructor
- Posts: 15539
- Joined: Tue May 25, 2010 12:04 pm
- Location: New York, NY
- Thanked: 13060 times
- Followed by:1906 members
- GMAT Score:790
Plug in for p and solve for r.If p≠0 and p - (1-p²)/p = r/p, then r = ?
A. p + 1
B. 2p - 1
C. p² + 1
D. 2p² - 1
E. p² + p - 1
Let p=2.
Substituting p=2 into p - (1-p²)/p = r/p, we get:
2 - (1-2²)/2 = r/2
2 - (-3/2) = r/2
7/2 = r/2
r = 7.
The target value is r=7.
Now plug p=2 into the answer choices to see which yields the target value of 7.
Only D works:
2p² - 1 = 2(2²) - 1 = 7.
The correct answer is D.
Private tutor exclusively for the GMAT and GRE, with over 20 years of experience.
Followed here and elsewhere by over 1900 test-takers.
I have worked with students based in the US, Australia, Taiwan, China, Tajikistan, Kuwait, Saudi Arabia -- a long list of countries.
My students have been admitted to HBS, CBS, Tuck, Yale, Stern, Fuqua -- a long list of top programs.
As a tutor, I don't simply teach you how I would approach problems.
I unlock the best way for YOU to solve problems.
For more information, please email me (Mitch Hunt) at [email protected].
Student Review #1
Student Review #2
Student Review #3
Followed here and elsewhere by over 1900 test-takers.
I have worked with students based in the US, Australia, Taiwan, China, Tajikistan, Kuwait, Saudi Arabia -- a long list of countries.
My students have been admitted to HBS, CBS, Tuck, Yale, Stern, Fuqua -- a long list of top programs.
As a tutor, I don't simply teach you how I would approach problems.
I unlock the best way for YOU to solve problems.
For more information, please email me (Mitch Hunt) at [email protected].
Student Review #1
Student Review #2
Student Review #3
-
DavidG@VeritasPrep
- Legendary Member
- Posts: 2663
- Joined: Wed Jan 14, 2015 8:25 am
- Location: Boston, MA
- Thanked: 1153 times
- Followed by:128 members
- GMAT Score:770
Or do a little algebra. Multiply both sides by 'p' to get p*p - (1-p²) = rQuote:
If p≠0 and p - (1-p²)/p = r/p, then r = ?
A. p + 1
B. 2p - 1
C. p² + 1
D. 2p² - 1
E. p² + p - 1
Simplify: p^2 - 1 + p^2 = r
And we get 2p^2 -1 = r; Answer is D
-
Matt@VeritasPrep
- GMAT Instructor
- Posts: 2630
- Joined: Wed Sep 12, 2012 3:32 pm
- Location: East Bay all the way
- Thanked: 625 times
- Followed by:119 members
- GMAT Score:780
Multiplying both sides by p is probably the easiest first step:
p² - (1 - p²) = r
Then the negative sign is applied to both terms in the ( )'s, giving us:
p² - 1 -(-p²) = r
or
2p² - 1 = r
p² - (1 - p²) = r
Then the negative sign is applied to both terms in the ( )'s, giving us:
p² - 1 -(-p²) = r
or
2p² - 1 = r
