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Atult718 Rising GMAT Star
Joined: 14 Mar 2007 Posts: 38
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Posted: Tue Apr 17, 2007 2:30 am Post subject: there must be a formula for this ? |
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I am sure there would be an easier method or a formula to solve the problem below?
Q: If A equals the sum of the even integers from 2-20, inclusive, and B equals the sum of the odd integers from 1-19, inclusive, what is the value of a-b ?
A) 1
b) 10
C) 19
D) 20
E) 21 |
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rajesh_ctm Really wants to Beat The GMAT!
Joined: 27 Feb 2007 Posts: 135
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Posted: Tue Apr 17, 2007 5:11 pm Post subject: |
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There is an easy method. Formula might be more time-taking.
a = 2+4+6+......20
b = 1+3+5+......19
subtract b from a, it will be (2-1)+(4-3)+(6-5)+.......(20-19)
so a-b = 1+1+1+......1 = 10 |
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Atult718 Rising GMAT Star
Joined: 14 Mar 2007 Posts: 38
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Posted: Wed Apr 18, 2007 12:02 am Post subject: |
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| right .. this way works... but i mean isn't this method too time consuming to be used on gmat?... it is almost same as adding all the numbers and then finding out the difference ? |
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crossingfingers Just gettin' started!
Joined: 18 Apr 2007 Posts: 1
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Posted: Wed Apr 18, 2007 8:17 am Post subject: use AP formula |
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use Arithmetic Progression formula:
Sum = n/2[a +l] where n = number of integers; a= first number; b=last number in the sequence
solve for the 2 groups and subtract...the answer is 10. |
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rajeshvellanki Just gettin' started!
Joined: 09 Apr 2007 Posts: 26
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Posted: Fri Apr 20, 2007 8:17 am Post subject: |
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a(n)=a1+(n-1)d
S=(n/2)(a1+an)
d=difference between the consecutive numbers
for the first series a=2+4+6+...20
d=2
a1=2
an=20
a(n)=a1+(n-1)d
20=2+(n-1)2
=>n=10
S=(10/2)(2+20)
=>S(a)=110
same for b
=>n=10
and
S=(10/2)(1+19)
=>S(b)=100
S(a)-S(b)=110-100=10
You should be able to do most of the math in your head.
R |
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Stacey Koprince GMAT Instructor

Joined: 27 Dec 2006 Posts: 965
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Location: Bay Area, California GMAT Score: 770
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Posted: Mon Apr 30, 2007 2:08 pm Post subject: |
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If you have consecutive integers (or consec even / consec odd), you can find the sum by finding:
1) the average of the first and last terms, and
2) the # of terms
and then multiplying those two together.
So, for even from 2-20
1) avg = 22/2 = 11
2) # = (20/2) - (2/2) + 1 = 10-1+1 = 10 (Note: need to divide by 2 b/c only counting the even terms)
multiply to get 110
For odd from 1-19
1) avg = 20/2 = 10
2) # = 10 (can tell b/c there were 10 terms for 2 to 20 - same as 1 to 19)
multiply to get 100
difference = 10 _________________ Stacey Koprince
GMAT Instructor
Director of Corporate Development, Northern California
Manhattan GMAT
Contributor to Beat The GMAT!
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parore26 Really wants to Beat The GMAT!
Joined: 25 Apr 2007 Posts: 145
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Location: New York, NY Test Date: Jan-2-2008 Target GMAT Score: 750
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Posted: Wed May 02, 2007 7:05 am Post subject: |
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| Wow! what a great thread. I was certain when I saw this question there was only one way to solve it: Using the formula for adding consecutive integers. I liked Rajesh's solution. Cheers guys, I'll remember the two new tricks I learnt today to deal with arithmetic progressions... |
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