Though formerly considered ill-formed and primitive, Henri Rousseau has become an iconic figure of Post-Impressionism for his dream-like canvases painted like he was naive.
a) Henri Rousseau has become an iconic figure of Post-Impressionism for his dream-like canvases painted like he was naive.
b) Henri Rousseau's canvases, painted in a naive, dream-like style, later established the artist as an icon of Post-Impressionism.
c) Henri Rousseau painted canvases in a naive, dream-like style that has become an icon of Post-Impressionism.
d) Henri Rousseau's canvases were painted in a naive, dream-like style that was later iconic of Post-Impressionism.
e) the canvases of Henri Rousseau are icons of Post-Impressionism due to being painted in a naive, dream-like style.
I have chosen answer c) that is not the correct answer because of the following explanation "(C) This choice incorrectly places Henri Rousseau (instead of his paintings) as the subject of the opening modifier "though considered aesthetically primitive . . ." Additionally, the phrase "style that has become an icon of Post-Impressionism" is incorrect. Rousseau, not his style, later became an icon."
Even though I have understood the reasons of my failure, I do not understand why the answer choice b) is correct. Into my studying material I have seen a rule that states "an introductory modifying phrase must modify the subject of the sentence" and then a corollary saying that "an introductory modifying phrase cannot modify a noun in the possessive (-'s) form."
Ron, could you help me to tackle this issue?
Thanks.
Ron help me please ...
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Is the OA[spoiler]: B[/spoiler]
If so I might try and give you my insight into it.
If so I might try and give you my insight into it.
Please press "thanks" if you think my post has helped you.. Cheers!!
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IMO B
As you pointed out that modifying phrase should modify the intended subject.
Considering that, canvases are ill-formed not the artist.
So we can make out that somehome canvases should be placed closer to the modifying phrase and not the artist/Henri Rousseau.
In B, the structure takes Adjective-Adjective-Noun (ill formed - Henri Rousseau's - Canvases) form.
my 2 cents
As you pointed out that modifying phrase should modify the intended subject.
Considering that, canvases are ill-formed not the artist.
So we can make out that somehome canvases should be placed closer to the modifying phrase and not the artist/Henri Rousseau.
In B, the structure takes Adjective-Adjective-Noun (ill formed - Henri Rousseau's - Canvases) form.
my 2 cents
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the term "ill-formed" = not conforming to the rules of a given language ... hence if we assume that the painting is a language then it could correctly modify the canvases. ok.champ0007
As you pointed out that modifying phrase should modify the intended subject.
Considering that, canvases are ill-formed not the artist.
the structure takes [introductory modifying phrase],[possessive adjective 's]-[noun] ... I have an issue with this structure because I have read that "an introductory modifying phrase cannot modify a noun in the possessive (-'s) form."In B, the structure takes Adjective-Adjective-Noun (ill formed - Henri Rousseau's - Canvases) form.
Please experts elaborate...
Thanks
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ERRATA CORRIGE OF MY PREVIOUS POST
Please help ...
Please experts elaborate...
the term "ill-formed" = not conforming to the rules of a given language ... hence if we assume that the painting can have a language then it could correctly modify some term as "the painting technique" or "the painting style", but cannot modify the canvases. How can a canvas be ill-formed? The language, the painting technique could be ill-formed.In B, the structure takes Adjective-Adjective-Noun (ill formed - Henri Rousseau's - Canvases) form.
Please help ...
the structure takes [introductory modifying phrase],[possessive adjective 's]-[noun] ... I have an issue with this structure because I have read that "an introductory modifying phrase cannot modify a noun in the possessive (-'s) form."In B, the structure takes Adjective-Adjective-Noun (ill formed - Henri Rousseau's - Canvases) form.
Please experts elaborate...
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The modifier at the beginning has to modify the noun right after it. This is the simple rule. Now Henry himself can not be ill-formed and primitive. It is illogical, so it has to be his paintings.Though formerly considered ill-formed and primitive, Henri Rousseau has become an iconic figure of Post-Impressionism for his dream-like canvases painted like he was naive.
a) Henri Rousseau has become an iconic figure of Post-Impressionism for his dream-like canvases painted like he was naive.
b) Henri Rousseau's canvases, painted in a naive, dream-like style, later established the artist as an icon of Post-Impressionism.
c) Henri Rousseau painted canvases in a naive, dream-like style that has become an icon of Post-Impressionism.
d) Henri Rousseau's canvases were painted in a naive, dream-like style that was later iconic of Post-Impressionism.
e) the canvases of Henri Rousseau are icons of Post-Impressionism due to being painted in a naive, dream-like style.
A possessive is not always incorrect. It is always about context. The rule says- "BE AWARE AND CAREFUL OF POSSESSIVE'S" as they can cause modifier errors. To say that a modifier phrase can't modify a possessive is wrong.
This leaves us with B, D and E. Now (D) makes his style an icon. So discard it.
(E) makes his canvases icons. Again wrong.
(B) be uses the corrects the initial modifier error and correctly makes Henry the icon of Post-Imp. It makes complete and clear sense.
I hope it helps. Too much of grammar sometimes doesn't help, at least that is what I think. Look into the logic of the sentence.
Please press "thanks" if you think my post has helped you.. Cheers!!
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it is clear now. Again, logic and meaning are the most important driver to pick the correct answer.
now i know that "To say that a modifier phrase can't modify a possessive is wrong".
thanks you so much.
now i know that "To say that a modifier phrase can't modify a possessive is wrong".
thanks you so much.
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it appears that the issues here have already been settled. however, a quick comment:
what they should have told you is this:
"NOUN + 'S" does NOT function as a noun! it functions as an adjective!**
that's all you really need to know in cases like this.
so, "henri rousseau" is a noun, making (a) and (c) wrong. however, "henri rousseau's" is an adjective, so the noun that's modified in (b) and (d) is actually the correct noun, "canvases".
--
** there's only one exception -- cases in which the noun is omitted. for instance,
my wife is taller than Joe's wife
--> here, "joe's" functions as an adjective describing the noun "wife".
my wife is taller than Joe's
--> here, "joe's" functions as a noun, because "wife" isn't there.
but, if you have noun's + noun, then the "noun's" always functions as an adjective.
yeah, unless it's a prepositional phrase. prepositional phrases just talk more generally about the whole situation in the following clause.monge1980 wrote:Into my studying material I have seen a rule that states "an introductory modifying phrase must modify the subject of the sentence"
yeah, well, that's an unnecessarily complicated way in which to present that fact.and then a corollary saying that "an introductory modifying phrase cannot modify a noun in the possessive (-'s) form."
what they should have told you is this:
"NOUN + 'S" does NOT function as a noun! it functions as an adjective!**
that's all you really need to know in cases like this.
so, "henri rousseau" is a noun, making (a) and (c) wrong. however, "henri rousseau's" is an adjective, so the noun that's modified in (b) and (d) is actually the correct noun, "canvases".
--
** there's only one exception -- cases in which the noun is omitted. for instance,
my wife is taller than Joe's wife
--> here, "joe's" functions as an adjective describing the noun "wife".
my wife is taller than Joe's
--> here, "joe's" functions as a noun, because "wife" isn't there.
but, if you have noun's + noun, then the "noun's" always functions as an adjective.
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Gosh !!!
I picked B and racked my brains why B was wrong .
In my manhattan Question Bank , the Correct . answer shows up as D .
What is the source here ? Since you say the OA is B .
Also is there an errata for the manhattan Question bank ?
I picked B and racked my brains why B was wrong .
In my manhattan Question Bank , the Correct . answer shows up as D .
What is the source here ? Since you say the OA is B .
Also is there an errata for the manhattan Question bank ?
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check again; i just looked in the database, and the correct answer is (b). furthermore, the problem has not been edited for about six years.
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Could anyone tell me why D is incorrect?
original poster says: Additionally, the phrase "style that has become an icon of Post-Impressionism" is incorrect. Rousseau, not his style, later became an icon."
According to World English Dictionary,
icon:
"a person or thing regarded as a symbol of a belief, nation, community, or cultural movement"
So why must Rousseau be an icon, not his style? Thanks.
(My guess: original sentence says "Henri Rousseau has become an iconic figure" - so we should stick to the original meaning, right?)
original poster says: Additionally, the phrase "style that has become an icon of Post-Impressionism" is incorrect. Rousseau, not his style, later became an icon."
According to World English Dictionary,
icon:
"a person or thing regarded as a symbol of a belief, nation, community, or cultural movement"
So why must Rousseau be an icon, not his style? Thanks.
(My guess: original sentence says "Henri Rousseau has become an iconic figure" - so we should stick to the original meaning, right?)
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"iconic of" isn't a proper idiom. and, yes, your point about the original meaning is valid.
also, dictionary usage aside, "iconic" is used almost exclusively (at least here in the States) to refer to people. try googling a phrase like "icons of the 1950's", or other such -- i can pretty much guarantee that all of the top hits will exclusively discuss people, not things.
this may be a bit unfair for the gmat -- i.e., it doesn't seem that the gmat would test that sort of distinction -- but, there it is.
finally, "that was later iconic of..." suggests that this style wasn't initially representative of the period in question. that's rather strange, since a style is a style.
the meaning of (b) is more reasonable: it's quite possible for a person to be obscure at first and then rise to "icon" status. on the other hand, a style is a style is a style; it either represents a period or doesn't. so (d) doesn't make much sense.
also, dictionary usage aside, "iconic" is used almost exclusively (at least here in the States) to refer to people. try googling a phrase like "icons of the 1950's", or other such -- i can pretty much guarantee that all of the top hits will exclusively discuss people, not things.
this may be a bit unfair for the gmat -- i.e., it doesn't seem that the gmat would test that sort of distinction -- but, there it is.
finally, "that was later iconic of..." suggests that this style wasn't initially representative of the period in question. that's rather strange, since a style is a style.
the meaning of (b) is more reasonable: it's quite possible for a person to be obscure at first and then rise to "icon" status. on the other hand, a style is a style is a style; it either represents a period or doesn't. so (d) doesn't make much sense.
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Hi All,
I have the question on answer Choice B.
b) Henri Rousseau's canvases, painted in a naive, dream-like style, later established the artist as an icon of Post-Impressionism.
"The Artist" on the second part of the sentence refers to Henri Rousseau. However, in the first part of the sentence, we do not specify Henry Rousseau. We only have Henri Rousseau's canvasses....is this a correct construction.
E.g: Arnold's build later made the body-builder an icon in Hollywood.
Thanks
HenryJEJO
I have the question on answer Choice B.
b) Henri Rousseau's canvases, painted in a naive, dream-like style, later established the artist as an icon of Post-Impressionism.
"The Artist" on the second part of the sentence refers to Henri Rousseau. However, in the first part of the sentence, we do not specify Henry Rousseau. We only have Henri Rousseau's canvasses....is this a correct construction.
E.g: Arnold's build later made the body-builder an icon in Hollywood.
Thanks
HenryJEJO
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these constructions are fine.henryjejo wrote:Hi All,
I have the question on answer Choice B.
b) Henri Rousseau's canvases, painted in a naive, dream-like style, later established the artist as an icon of Post-Impressionism.
"The Artist" on the second part of the sentence refers to Henri Rousseau. However, in the first part of the sentence, we do not specify Henry Rousseau. We only have Henri Rousseau's canvasses....is this a correct construction.
E.g: Arnold's build later made the body-builder an icon in Hollywood.
Thanks
HenryJEJO
"the artist" (like "the bodybuilder") is not a pronoun, so it doesn't have to be strictly compatible with the noun. if you see "the artist", "the bodybuilder", etc., then, as long as you can figure out what it refers to, it's fine.
in fact, in almost every case like this, the general term (artist, bodybuilder, etc.) WON'T agree grammatically with the noun. in fact, this is the whole point of constructions like these -- to use them specifically in locations where a pronoun won't work. if a pronoun would work, then the sentence would most likely just contain a pronoun.
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