X, Y, and Z are positive integers. Is X% of Y bigger than Y% of Z?
A)Z - Y = Y - X
B)X = Z
[spoiler]OA: B. From statement 1, Y = (X+Z)/2.
Hence
LHS:
(X/100)*(Y)
(X/100)*(X+Z)/2
RHS:
(Y/100)*(Z)
(X+Z)/200 *Z
Equating both sides we get X = Z. So we cannot determine if they will be greater or lesser. Hence St 1 is not sufficient. Am I doing it right here? [/spoiler]
X percentage and Y percentage
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- Birottam Dutta
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If Z-Y=Y-X, then Z, Y and X are in arithmetic progression, and Z>Y>X.
Therefore, X% of Y will always be lesser than Y% of Z. (You can try taking values of 5, 4 and 3)
So, statement 1 is sufficient.
Statement 2 says X=Z which gives X% of Y = Y% of Z (as X=Z). Take X=Z= 2 and Y= 4.
So both statements are sufficient to answer the question.
Hence, C!
Therefore, X% of Y will always be lesser than Y% of Z. (You can try taking values of 5, 4 and 3)
So, statement 1 is sufficient.
Statement 2 says X=Z which gives X% of Y = Y% of Z (as X=Z). Take X=Z= 2 and Y= 4.
So both statements are sufficient to answer the question.
Hence, C!
Folks please check this out
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=H7p56NzAVKc
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=H7p56NzAVKc
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Prompt: X, Y, and Z are positive integers. Is X% of Y bigger than Y% of Z?rahulvsd wrote:X, Y, and Z are positive integers. Is X% of Y bigger than Y% of Z?
A)Z - Y = Y - X
B)X = Z
Am I doing it right here? [/spoiler]
This is tricky, because the prompt question is about an inequality.
Statement #1: Z - Y = Y - X
One thing that concerns me about your approach was taking the inequality and setting both sides equal to see the consequences. It worked out well for you in this case, but in some cases, knowing what's true when LHS equals RHS doesn't necessarily tell you when LHS or RHS will be bigger.
I think it is far far clearer to see what Statement #1 implies if we just pick some numbers. Z - Y = Y - X means that X, Y, and Z are equally spaced. We could pick:
X = 50, Y = 100, Z = 150. Then
X% of Y = 50% of 100 = 50
Y% of Z = 100% of 150 = 150, which is clearly bigger.
But notice --- statement #1 only implies X & Y & Z are evenly spaced, not which way they increase or decrease. It's also totally consistent with statement #1 to pick:
X = 150, Y = 100, and Z = 50. Then
X% of Y = 150% of 100 = 150
Y% of X = 100% of 50 = 50, so now the first is bigger
We can pick different numbers which make the inequality point in different directions, so Statement #1, by itself, is insufficient.
Statement #2: X=Z
Now, we are comparing (X% of Y) and (Y% of X). Those are equal. In general, (A% of B) = (B% of A) = (A*B)/100. So, since they are equal, one is not greater than the other. We get a definitive NO answer to the prompt question, and since we get a definitive answer, it means Statement #2, by itself, is sufficient.
Answer = B
Remember: algebra is often a powerful shortcut, but it's not the clearest tool in every situation. In particular, algebraic expression in inequalities can sometime be unclear, and picking a few easy numbers brings a load of insight, as it did in Statement #1 here.
Does all this make sense?
Here's another algebraic inequality, for practice.
https://gmat.magoosh.com/questions/967
When you submit your answer, the following page will have a complete video explanation.
Let me know if you have any more questions.
Mike
Last edited by Mike@Magoosh on Mon Apr 16, 2012 9:52 am, edited 1 time in total.
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The question is:
Is (X/100) of Y > (Y/100) of Z ?
or,
(by cancelling Y/100 on both sides)
Is X > Z? (The question reduces to this now)
Statement A, as you said, says that Y = (X + Z)/2. But, it does not relate X and Z and is thus INSUFFICIENT.
Statement B gives a clear relation between X and Z. It helps us answer the question with a NO, because X and Z are equal and A is NOT GREATER than Z.
Therefore, Statement B alone is sufficient.
the answer is, thus, B.
Is (X/100) of Y > (Y/100) of Z ?
or,
(by cancelling Y/100 on both sides)
Is X > Z? (The question reduces to this now)
Statement A, as you said, says that Y = (X + Z)/2. But, it does not relate X and Z and is thus INSUFFICIENT.
Statement B gives a clear relation between X and Z. It helps us answer the question with a NO, because X and Z are equal and A is NOT GREATER than Z.
Therefore, Statement B alone is sufficient.
the answer is, thus, B.
Last edited by aneesh.kg on Mon Apr 16, 2012 12:47 pm, edited 3 times in total.
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Dear aneesh.kganeesh.kg wrote:The question is:
Is (X/100) of Z > (Y/100) of Z ?
With all due respect, I believe you misstated the question. It's
Is X% of Y bigger than Y% of Z?
not
Is X% of Z bigger than Y% of Z?
You gave a very good analysis for a question other than the one asked here. Does that make sense?
Mike
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Very elegant analysis. Nice work.aneesh.kg wrote:Just corrected. Please read above. Thanks.
Mike
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Given is Is X% of Y > Y% Z ?;rahulvsd wrote:X, Y, and Z are positive integers. Is X% of Y bigger than Y% of Z?
A)Z - Y = Y - X
B)X = Z
[spoiler]OA: B. From statement 1, Y = (X+Z)/2.
Hence
LHS:
(X/100)*(Y)
(X/100)*(X+Z)/2
RHS:
(Y/100)*(Z)
(X+Z)/200 *Z
Equating both sides we get X = Z. So we cannot determine if they will be greater or lesser. Hence St 1 is not sufficient. Am I doing it right here? [/spoiler]
It can be written as Is XY/100 > YZ/100 ?
This reduces to Is X > Z ? cancelling Y, as it is +ive qty,
Stat. 1...
If Z-Y is +ive then Y-X will be +ive and Z>Y>X. Ans No.
If Z-Y is -ive then Y-X will be -ive and Z<Y<X. Ans Yes. stat. 1 is insuff.
Stat. 2...
Given is X= Y. Sufficient to infer that X is not greater than Y. Ans No. Suff.
Shalabh Jain,
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