If x is not equal to zero , is 1/x > 1 ?
(1) y/x > y .
(2) x^3 > x^2 .
source : Kaplan.
(1) y/x > y .
(2) x^3 > x^2 .
source : Kaplan.
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I don't believe that this is accurate. We don't know the sign of y so we can't divide y on both sides of the equation. If y were negative we would have to flip the sign.
rockeyb wrote:If x is not equal to zero , is 1/x > 1 ?
(1) y/x > y .
(2) x^3 > x^2 .
source : Kaplan.
PeterFaulkner wrote:btw I am new here...what does "ve" mean?
Peter welcome to this forum . I am sorry I should have typed in the complete positive instead of just +ve . It never occurred to me that some one might not realize what +ve stands for ? Sorry for that once again .PeterFaulkner wrote:btw I am new here...what does "ve" mean?
Thanks for the warm welcome!rockeyb wrote:Peter welcome to this forum . I am sorry I should have typed in the complete positive instead of just +ve . It never occurred to me that some one might not realize what +ve stands for ? Sorry for that once again .PeterFaulkner wrote:btw I am new here...what does "ve" mean?
Your explanation above is perfect and [spoiler]OA = B.[/spoiler]
If You divide the inequality by a negative number the direction of the inequality Changesnisha.menon294 wrote:This is how i got started :
1) y\x>y
If you divide both sides by 1\y =>1\x>1 , wont that be sufficient as well?? - correct me if i am wrong
Fell for the trap. Never multiply or divide both sides on an inequality by an unknown. x and y are unkown till we solve the eqs.nisha.menon294 wrote:This is how i got started :
1) y\x>y
If you divide both sides by 1\y =>1\x>1 , wont that be sufficient as well?? - correct me if i am wrong2)also sufficient
So the answer would be D??[/list][/i]
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